Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer
• B. Pull the pinna of the infant's ear forward before inserting the probe
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.

2. A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Apply fetal heart rate monitor
• C. Initiate fundal massage
• D. Initiate an oxytocin IV infusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying a fetal heart rate monitor is the priority action in this scenario as it helps assess the well-being of the fetus during labor. This monitoring is crucial to detect any signs of fetal distress and guide interventions. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) is not a priority at this time unless there are specific indications. Initiating fundal massage (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the focus should be on fetal assessment. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion (Choice D) is not indicated until the stage of labor and the progress of labor are determined.

3. A client has had a nasogastric tube in place for 2 days. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Polyuria
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Epistaxis.' Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a common adverse effect of prolonged nasogastric tube insertion due to irritation of the nasal mucosa. Dry mucous membranes (choice A) may indicate dehydration but are not a direct adverse effect of nasogastric tube insertion. Polyuria (choice B) is excessive urination and is not typically associated with nasogastric tube insertion. Diarrhea (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of having a nasogastric tube in place.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer opioids routinely for chronic pain.
• B. Instruct the client to avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• C. Apply heat to affected joints to reduce stiffness.
• D. Avoid physical activity to prevent joint damage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with osteoarthritis is to apply heat to affected joints to reduce stiffness. Heat application helps improve circulation, relax muscles, and reduce discomfort in joints affected by osteoarthritis. Administering opioids routinely (Choice A) is not the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis and carries risks of dependency and side effects. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing exercises (Choice B) may lead to muscle weakness and reduced joint flexibility. Avoiding physical activity altogether (Choice D) can lead to further joint stiffness and compromised overall health.

5. A client has had vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?

• A. Jugular vein distention
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Bounding pulses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a sign of fluid volume deficit as the body attempts to compensate for decreased blood volume. Jugular vein distention, bradycardia, and bounding pulses are not typical findings of fluid volume deficit. Jugular vein distention is more commonly associated with fluid volume overload, bradycardia can be a sign of fluid volume excess or other issues, and bounding pulses are not typically seen in fluid volume deficit.

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