Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer
• B. Pull the pinna of the infant's ear forward before inserting the probe
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?

• A. Constipation.
• B. Drowsiness.
• C. Orthostatic hypotension.
• D. Respiratory depression.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.

3. A healthcare professional is receiving a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which client information should the healthcare professional report?

• A. Low-grade fever.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. High platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postoperative client, a low-grade fever can be an early sign of infection, which is crucial to report to the healthcare team for timely intervention. Shortness of breath and decreased urine output are also important to monitor, but in the context of postoperative care, infection is a more immediate concern. A high platelet count is not typically a priority in the immediate postoperative period.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Crackles in the lung bases
• C. Dependent edema
• D. Productive cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dependent edema is a common finding in clients with pneumonia due to fluid retention and decreased mobility. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia. Crackles in the lung bases (Choice B) are more commonly heard in conditions like heart failure or pulmonary edema. A productive cough (Choice D) can be seen in pneumonia but is not as specific as dependent edema.

5. A client is receiving radiation therapy for cancer. Which of the following skin care instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Apply alcohol-free lotions to your skin to prevent dryness.
• B. Avoid exposing the irradiated area to direct sunlight.
• C. Cleanse the irradiated area with mild soap and water.
• D. Apply ice packs to the irradiated area to prevent swelling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid exposing the irradiated area to direct sunlight. Direct sunlight can further damage the skin during radiation therapy. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol-based lotions can irritate the skin further. Choice C is incorrect because mild soap and water can be drying to the skin. Choice D is incorrect because applying ice packs can cause additional skin damage during radiation therapy.

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