a nurse is preparing to assess a 2 week old newborn which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify which finding as an indication of effective treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client reporting feeling less anxious is a positive indication of effective treatment for a pulmonary embolism. This suggests that the client's condition is improving psychologically. Option A is incorrect because increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate unresolved issues related to the embolism. Option C is incorrect as diminished breath sounds bilaterally suggest a complication or worsening of the condition. Option D is incorrect as ABG results within normal range do not necessarily indicate effective treatment for a pulmonary embolism, as other complications may still be present.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about food choices to increase iron intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Spinach is an excellent choice to recommend as it is rich in non-heme iron, which can help improve iron levels in clients with iron deficiency anemia. Eggs (Choice A) are a good source of protein but do not contain as much iron as spinach. Carrots (Choice B) are rich in vitamin A but are not a significant source of iron. White bread (Choice C) is not a good source of iron compared to spinach.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. In a client with a history of angina and reporting chest pain, the priority action is to assess for myocardial infarction, which is best done through an ECG. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the provider can be important actions but obtaining an ECG takes precedence in evaluating the client's condition.

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