Nursing Elites

1. A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?

• A. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
• B. Draw a peak level 90 min prior to administering the medication and a trough level 90 min after the dose.
• C. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
• D. Draw a peak level at 0900 and a trough level at 2100.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol. Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.

2. When caring for a client with a wound infection, which action should the nurse perform first in the plan of care?

• A. Administer antibiotic medication.
• B. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
• C. Review WBC laboratory findings.
• D. Apply a dressing to the wound.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to obtain a wound specimen for culture before initiating antibiotic therapy. This step is crucial to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection, allowing for targeted antibiotic treatment. Reviewing WBC laboratory findings and applying a wound dressing are important steps, but obtaining a wound specimen for culture takes precedence as it guides appropriate antibiotic therapy by identifying the causative organism.

3. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Glucagon
• D. Vitamin B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.

4. A client has a prescription for Alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication before bed.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Expect to have frequent headaches while on this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Alendronate is to sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication. Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation, and maintaining an upright position helps prevent this adverse effect by reducing the risk of reflux of the medication into the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken in the morning, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day with a full glass of plain water. Choice B is incorrect because Alendronate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because frequent headaches are not a common side effect of Alendronate.

5. A client has a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTS. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.
• B. You should take this medication at bedtime to help promote sleep.
• C. You will have fewer urinary adverse effects if you urinate just before taking this medication.
• D. You'll need to wear sunglasses when outdoors due to the light sensitivity caused by this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is 'You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.' One of the potential adverse effects of fluoxetine and other SSRIs is a decreased desire for intimacy. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this possible side effect to enhance understanding and promote informed decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not relate to common side effects of Fluoxetine that the nurse should include in the teaching.

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