Nursing Elites

1. A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?

• A. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
• B. Draw a peak level 90 min prior to administering the medication and a trough level 90 min after the dose.
• C. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
• D. Draw a peak level at 0900 and a trough level at 2100.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol. Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Pamidronate to a client who has bone pain related to cancer. Which of the following precautions should the healthcare professional take when administering pamidronate?

• A. Inspect the IV site for redness and irritation when changing the intravenous patch.
• B. Assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis frequently during administration.
• C. Instruct the client to sit upright or stand for 30 min following intravenous administration.
• D. Watch for manifestations of anaphylaxis for 20 min after intramuscular administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pamidronate is administered through intravenous (IV) infusion. As this medication can be irritating to veins, the healthcare professional should carefully assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis during administration to prevent potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as Pamidronate is not administered via intradermal patch. Choice C is incorrect as it does not relate to the administration of Pamidronate. Choice D is incorrect as Pamidronate is not administered intramuscularly.

3. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• B. I can expect my heart rate to increase while taking this medication.
• C. This medication will cause my urine to turn orange.
• D. I will stop taking this medication if I experience headaches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.

4. A client is taking Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypovolemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Agitation
• D. Headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Headache is an adverse effect that the nurse should monitor for in a client taking Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. It can be an early sign of water intoxication, which is a potential complication of desmopressin therapy due to excessive water retention in the body.

5. When providing teaching to a client starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of trastuzumab. Monitoring and early reporting of respiratory symptoms like dyspnea are essential to prevent further complications and ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not priority symptoms that require immediate reporting for this specific medication.

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