Nursing Elites

1. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Taking four medications decreases the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
• B. Taking four medications reduces the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
• C. Taking four medications reduces the risk of adverse reactions.
• D. Taking four medications decreases the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of multiple medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacterial resistance. The use of four medications helps to target the bacteria from different angles, making it harder for them to develop resistance to the treatment. This approach is essential to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment regimen and to prevent the spread of drug-resistant strains of tuberculosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for using multiple medications in tuberculosis treatment is to prevent the development of bacterial resistance, not to decrease the risk of allergic reactions, adverse reactions, or affecting the tuberculin skin test results.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Take off the nitroglycerin patch if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half is not recommended because it can alter the dosing and absorption rate, leading to inadequate symptom control. Taking off the patch for a headache is not necessary as headaches are a common side effect that may improve with continued use. Applying a new patch every 48 hours is not correct as it may not provide continuous symptom relief for angina.

3. A client has a new prescription for Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Maintain a fluid restriction while taking it.
• C. Take it with food.
• D. Stop taking it when manifestations subside.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take it with food.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can cause gastrointestinal upset, and taking it with food helps reduce the risk of stomach irritation. It should not be taken on an empty stomach. Maintaining good hydration is important to prevent kidney-related side effects, so maintaining a fluid restriction, as in choice B, is not appropriate. Additionally, stopping the medication when manifestations subside, as in choice D, is incorrect as antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course to ensure eradication of the infection and to prevent antibiotic resistance.

4. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
• C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
• D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so it is important for the client to refrain from activities that require alertness until they are aware of how the medication affects them. Choice A is incorrect because a rash is not a common side effect of clonidine. Choice B is incorrect as increased salivation is not an expected side effect of clonidine. Choice D is also incorrect as dry mouth is a common side effect of clonidine, but it is not a reason to stop the medication unless severe or bothersome. Therefore, the priority instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known to ensure safety.

5. Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that increases cardiac output and slows heart rate?

• A. Heparin
• B. Alprazolam
• C. Digoxin
• D. Levothyroxine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digoxin is the correct answer. It is a medication known for its positive inotropic effects, which increase cardiac output, and negative chronotropic effects, which slow the heart rate. These effects are achieved by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in myocardial cells. Therefore, Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage conditions like heart failure and atrial fibrillation, where enhancing cardiac output and reducing heart rate are beneficial. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Heparin is an anticoagulant, Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety disorders, and Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement drug, none of which have the specified therapeutic effects on cardiac function.

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