Nursing Elites

1. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Taking four medications decreases the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
• B. Taking four medications reduces the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
• C. Taking four medications reduces the risk of adverse reactions.
• D. Taking four medications decreases the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of multiple medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacterial resistance. The use of four medications helps to target the bacteria from different angles, making it harder for them to develop resistance to the treatment. This approach is essential to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment regimen and to prevent the spread of drug-resistant strains of tuberculosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for using multiple medications in tuberculosis treatment is to prevent the development of bacterial resistance, not to decrease the risk of allergic reactions, adverse reactions, or affecting the tuberculin skin test results.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should avoid taking aspirin for headaches while on this medication.
• B. You should use a soft toothbrush to brush your teeth.
• C. You should avoid foods that are rich in vitamin K.
• D. You should avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement to include in discharge teaching for a client prescribed Warfarin is to use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so using a soft toothbrush can help prevent gum injury and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin, another blood-thinning medication, should generally be avoided while on Warfarin to reduce the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because clients on Warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods rather than avoid them completely. Choice D is unrelated to the medication and not a priority teaching point for a client prescribed Warfarin.

3. A client has a prescription for Clindamycin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
• C. Discontinue the medication if diarrhea occurs.
• D. Expect to have increased appetite while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Clindamycin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Clindamycin can cause esophageal irritation, so taking it with a full glass of water helps minimize this risk. Avoiding taking the medication with food is not necessary. If diarrhea occurs, clients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Clindamycin is not known to cause increased appetite.

4. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin toxicity?

• A. Protamine
• B. Methylene blue
• C. N-acetylcysteine
• D. Glucagon

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine is the specific antidote for Heparin toxicity. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication, and if an overdose occurs or if there is excessive bleeding due to Heparin use, protamine, a positively charged molecule, can neutralize the anticoagulant effects of Heparin by forming a complex with it. This binding prevents Heparin from further inhibiting coagulation factors and helps in reversing its effects.

5. A client with early Parkinson's disease has been prescribed pramipexole. What adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Increased salivation
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Discoloration of urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations within 9 months of the initial dose, which may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Monitoring for hallucinations is crucial to ensure early detection and management to prevent any adverse outcomes. Choice B, increased salivation, is not a common adverse effect of pramipexole. Choice C, diarrhea, is not typically associated with pramipexole use. Choice D, discoloration of urine, is not a known adverse effect of pramipexole and is not typically a concern with this medication.

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