Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The healthcare provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?

• A. 1-year-old with no health problems
• B. 17-year-old with a hypersensitivity to Penicillin
• C. 25-year-old who is pregnant
• D. 52-year-old who takes a multivitamin supplement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 17-year-old can be immunized for influenza with the LAIV via nasal spray. A hypersensitivity to penicillin is not a contraindication for an influenza immunization. Nasal spray influenza vaccine is generally recommended for healthy individuals between 2 and 49 years old. Choices A, C, and D are not candidates for nasal spray influenza vaccine. A 1-year-old is too young, pregnant individuals should not receive the nasal spray, and age is a factor for the use of the nasal spray vaccine.

2. A client has a prescription for Alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication before bed.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Expect to have frequent headaches while on this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Alendronate is to sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication. Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation, and maintaining an upright position helps prevent this adverse effect by reducing the risk of reflux of the medication into the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken in the morning, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day with a full glass of plain water. Choice B is incorrect because Alendronate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because frequent headaches are not a common side effect of Alendronate.

3. A client receiving chemotherapy with Methotrexate asks why Leucovorin is being given. Which of the following responses should the nurse use?

• A. Leucovorin reduces the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate.
• B. Leucovorin increases platelet production and prevents bleeding.
• C. Leucovorin potentiates the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate.
• D. Leucovorin protects healthy cells from Methotrexate's toxic effects.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leucovorin, a folic acid derivative and an antagonist to Methotrexate, is given within 12 hours of high doses of Methotrexate to protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate. It helps to reduce the bone marrow suppression and gastrointestinal side effects caused by Methotrexate, supporting the client's overall well-being during chemotherapy treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Leucovorin does not reduce the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate, increase platelet production, prevent bleeding, or potentiate the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate. Instead, Leucovorin works by rescuing healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate.

4. A client has a new prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen, and the nurse is providing discharge instructions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on this medication.
• C. Increase your intake of fiber while on this medication.
• D. Avoid taking the medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen is to avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on this medication. Combining medications containing Acetaminophen can lead to exceeding the maximum recommended dose and increase the risk of liver toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of not taking extra Acetaminophen while on this prescription to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Oxycodone/Acetaminophen on an empty stomach is not necessary; increasing fiber intake is not directly related to this medication, and avoiding taking the medication before bedtime is not a specific concern associated with this prescription.

5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.

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