ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- B. I can expect my heart rate to increase while taking this medication.
- C. This medication will cause my urine to turn orange.
- D. I will stop taking this medication if I experience headaches.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.
2. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.
- A. Antidepressant
- B. Protease inhibitor
- C. Beta antagonist
- D. H antagonist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Drugs ending in -tidine are histamine (H2) receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine at the H2 receptors, commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. Therefore, the correct answer is an 'H antagonist.' It is essential to be familiar with drug suffixes as they can provide clues to the drug's class and function.
3. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Ringing in the ears
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.
4. When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, which of the following pharmacokinetic principles should be considered? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Infants have a more rapid gastric emptying time.
- B. Infants have immature liver function.
- C. Infants' blood-brain barrier is poorly developed.
- D. Infants have an increased ability to absorb topical medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, the pharmacokinetic principle to consider is that infants have immature liver function until 1 year of age. This requires medications metabolized by the liver to be administered in smaller dosages. While infants do have a more rapid gastric emptying time, immature liver function is a more critical pharmacokinetic consideration in this context. Additionally, although infants have a poorly developed blood-brain barrier, this relates more to pharmacodynamic effects rather than pharmacokinetic principles. The statement about infants having an increased ability to absorb topical medications is not directly related to pharmacokinetic principles, making choice B the correct answer.
5. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine, leading to muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in body temperature. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Neostigmine
- B. Naloxone
- C. Dantrolene
- D. Vecuronium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are indicative of malignant hyperthermia, a potential complication of succinylcholine. Dantrolene is the drug of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia as it acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and counteract the symptoms. Neostigmine (Choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents, not for malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (Choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (Choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and is not the appropriate medication for malignant hyperthermia.
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