ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?
- A. Sodium
- B. Potassium
- C. Magnesium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can potentiate the effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels helps in preventing adverse effects and ensuring the safe use of Digoxin. Sodium, magnesium, and calcium levels are not directly associated with Digoxin toxicity; hence, they are not the primary focus for monitoring in this case.
2. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Increased TSH level
- B. Decreased ALT level
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels, can occur as an adverse effect of Ritonavir. Monitoring lipid levels is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect in clients taking this medication for HIV infection.
3. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Four medications decrease the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
- B. Four medications reduce the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
- C. Four medications reduce the risk of adverse reactions.
- D. Four medications decrease the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Shortness of breath.
- D. Tachycardia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.
5. A client has a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide to treat hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.
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