Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can potentiate the effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels helps in preventing adverse effects and ensuring the safe use of Digoxin. Sodium, magnesium, and calcium levels are not directly associated with Digoxin toxicity; hence, they are not the primary focus for monitoring in this case.

2. A client in an outpatient facility is taking Acarbose for type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to monitor?

• A. WBC
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Platelet count
• D. Liver function test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Liver function test. Acarbose, used for type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, can lead to liver toxicity with long-term use. Monitoring liver function tests periodically is crucial to detect any signs of liver dysfunction early and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as Acarbose does not directly affect WBC, serum potassium, or platelet count levels.

3. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

• A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
• B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
• C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
• D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, leading to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Enalapril. Enalapril does not typically affect glucose levels, so hypoglycemia (Choice C) is not a common concern with this medication. Enalapril does not directly impact calcium levels, so hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect.

5. A client with angina is seeking a prescription for sildenafil to manage erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Isosorbide
• C. Clopidogrel
• D. Atorvastatin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Isosorbide, an organic nitrate used for angina, is contraindicated with sildenafil due to the risk of fatal hypotension. Concurrent use of these medications can lead to severe hypotension. Patients are advised to avoid taking nitrate medications for 24 hours after using isosorbide to prevent this dangerous interaction.

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