Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can potentiate the effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels helps in preventing adverse effects and ensuring the safe use of Digoxin. Sodium, magnesium, and calcium levels are not directly associated with Digoxin toxicity; hence, they are not the primary focus for monitoring in this case.

2. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

• A. Valproic acid
• B. Quinidine
• C. Isoniazid
• D. Ethosuximide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cinchonism is associated with Quinidine, not Valproic acid, Isoniazid, or Ethosuximide. Cinchonism is characterized by symptoms such as tinnitus, dizziness, and headaches. Quinidine, being an antiarrhythmic agent, can lead to this condition as a side effect.

3. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?

• A. Proximal convoluted tubule
• B. Loop of Henle
• C. Collecting duct
• D. Distal convoluted tubule

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.

4. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide to treat nausea. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication before bedtime.
• B. I will discontinue this medication if I experience drowsiness.
• C. I should report restlessness or involuntary movements.
• D. This medication can change the color of my urine to orange.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reporting restlessness or involuntary movements is crucial as they can be signs of extrapyramidal symptoms, a potential side effect of Metoclopramide. These symptoms should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication before bedtime, discontinuing it due to drowsiness, or expecting urine color changes are not relevant teaching points for Metoclopramide use.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client with severe Thrombocytopenia. How should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over which of the following time frames?

• A. Within 30 minutes/unit
• B. Within 60 minutes/unit
• C. Within 2 hours/unit
• D. Within 4 hours/unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered promptly to minimize the risk of clumping. The correct administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit to maintain their therapeutic effectiveness and reduce adverse effects. Administering platelets over longer time frames can lead to decreased efficacy and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the 300 mL of pooled platelets within 30 minutes per unit.

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