Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can potentiate the effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels helps in preventing adverse effects and ensuring the safe use of Digoxin. Sodium, magnesium, and calcium levels are not directly associated with Digoxin toxicity; hence, they are not the primary focus for monitoring in this case.

2. A client has been prescribed Methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Wear sunscreen when outdoors while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Methotrexate is hepatotoxic, and avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent liver damage. However, Option A (Take this medication with food to prevent nausea) could also be correct, as Methotrexate commonly causes nausea, and taking it with food can help alleviate this side effect. However, the most important instruction is to avoid alcohol due to the risk of liver toxicity.

3. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with angina. Which vital sign would cause the healthcare professional to question administering this drug?

• A. Respirations 12 breaths per minute
• B. Pulse 52 beats per minute
• C. Blood pressure 134/72
• D. Oxygen saturation 95%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker medication that can lower heart rate. A pulse of 52 beats per minute is relatively low and administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, potentially leading to bradycardia. Monitoring the pulse rate and holding the medication if the pulse is below the prescribed parameters is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as bradycardia and hypotension.

5. A client has a new prescription for Nevirapine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Take this medication with food to increase absorption.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in teaching the client about Nevirapine, an NNRTI, is to take the medication with food to improve gastrointestinal tolerance and prevent nausea. While absorption is not significantly affected by food, taking it with meals can help reduce adverse gastrointestinal effects. Choice A is incorrect because Nevirapine should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is generally true for most medications but is not specific to Nevirapine. Choice D is a good practice for medication adherence but is not specific to the administration requirements of Nevirapine.

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