Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?

• A. Pulmonary Edema
• B. Cough suppression
• C. Sedation
• D. Pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management and cough suppression. Sedation is not a primary indication for these medications.

2. A healthcare professional in a provider's clinic is caring for a client who reports erectile dysfunction and requests a prescription for sildenafil. Which of the following medications currently prescribed for the client is a contraindication to taking sildenafil?

• A. Isosorbide
• B. Phenytoin
• C. Metronidazole
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sildenafil is contraindicated with nitrates like isosorbide due to the risk of severe hypotension. Isosorbide is a nitrate that can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Therefore, it is essential to avoid concurrent use of isosorbide and sildenafil to prevent adverse effects. Phenytoin, metronidazole, and prednisone do not have significant interactions with sildenafil and are not contraindicated when used together.

3. A client with a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication is being provided discharge instructions by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse give?

• A. Be sure to limit your potassium intake while taking the medication.
• B. You should check your blood pressure every 8 hours while taking this medication.
• C. Your medication dosage will be increased if you develop tachycardia.
• D. Change positions slowly when you move from sitting to standing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to provide is to instruct the client to change positions slowly when moving from sitting to standing. This is crucial because antihypertensive medications can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness or lightheadedness when changing positions quickly. Checking blood pressure every 8 hours is unnecessary and could lead to over-monitoring. There is no direct relationship between the medication and potassium intake. Increasing the medication dosage due to tachycardia is not a typical response and may not be accurate.

4. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

• A. I am constipated frequently.
• B. I have been urinating more frequently.
• C. My skin is peeling.
• D. I have ringing in my ears.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation as a side effect. Therefore, the client reporting frequent constipation should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Verapamil use. Increased urination is not a common side effect of Verapamil, peeling skin is more likely related to a dermatological issue, and ringing in the ears is not a known adverse effect of Verapamil.

5. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.

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