which of the following are not treated with opoid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored

1. Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management and cough suppression. Sedation is not a primary indication for these medications.

2. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure and heart rate regularly.' Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions. Patients should monitor their blood pressure and heart rate regularly to assess the medication's effectiveness and check for adverse effects like bradycardia or hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because Atenolol should not be taken with grapefruit juice, which can interfere with its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because Atenolol typically causes a decrease in heart rate, not a rapid heart rate. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Atenolol.

3. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness can be signs of digoxin toxicity. Vital signs can provide immediate information on the client's condition and help guide further interventions. Monitoring vital signs will allow the nurse to assess for bradycardia, a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Requesting a dietitian consult (choice B) may be necessary but addressing the immediate concern of toxicity is the priority. Suggesting rest before eating (choice C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Requesting an antiemetic (choice D) can be considered later but is not the initial action needed in this situation.

4. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription indicates that the medication is to be administered on a regular schedule, typically daily, without a specified termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily is to be given regularly until the healthcare provider decides to discontinue it. This type of prescription is common for medications that are part of the client's ongoing treatment regimen. The other choices are incorrect: 'Single' does not provide information about the frequency or duration of administration, 'Stat' indicates an urgent, one-time administration, and 'Standing' refers to a prescription that is automatically renewed without the need for a new order for each administration.

5. A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of Fluoxetine for PTSD. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: One of the potential adverse effects of fluoxetine and other SSRIs is a decreased libido, which can impact intimacy. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this possible side effect to promote awareness and understanding of the medication's effects.

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