ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored
1. Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?
- A. Pulmonary Edema
- B. Cough suppression
- C. Sedation
- D. Pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management and cough suppression. Sedation is not a primary indication for these medications.
2. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed furosemide is to take the medication in the morning. Furosemide, a diuretic, is best taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Taking it earlier in the day can help reduce disruptions to sleep patterns. Therefore, advising the client to take furosemide in the morning is crucial for optimal therapeutic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, and does not mandate limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
3. A client with cancer is prescribed methotrexate. Which supplement should the healthcare provider recommend to reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity?
- A. Folic acid
- B. Magnesium
- C. Vitamin D
- D. Iron
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is folic acid. Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist, and supplementing with folic acid can help reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity. Folic acid supplementation is commonly recommended to counteract the effects of methotrexate on folate metabolism. Magnesium, Vitamin D, and Iron are not specifically indicated to reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity and therefore are incorrect choices in this scenario.
4. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Fomepizole
- B. Naloxone
- C. Phytonadione
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.
5. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Serum potassium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum sodium.
- D. Serum magnesium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure, can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's serum potassium levels regularly while on Furosemide. Serum calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Furosemide and are not the primary focus of monitoring for adverse effects of this medication.
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