Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?

• A. Pulmonary Edema
• B. Cough suppression
• C. Sedation
• D. Pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management and cough suppression. Sedation is not a primary indication for these medications.

2. A client is taking Sucralfate PO for Peptic Ulcer Disease and has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take an antacid with the sucralfate.
• B. Take sucralfate with a glass of milk.
• C. Allow a 2-hour interval between these medications.
• D. Chew the sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This timing helps to ensure adequate absorption and effectiveness of both medications without compromising therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, and chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing do not address the need for a 2-hour interval between these medications to prevent interference with phenytoin absorption.

3. What should you monitor when administering Clopidogrel to a patient?

• A. Signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
• B. Bleeding during therapy
• C. CBC with differential and platelet count
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Clopidogrel, it is crucial to monitor for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, bleeding during therapy, and changes in CBC with differential and platelet count. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a rare but serious condition associated with Clopidogrel use, characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neurological symptoms, fever, and renal dysfunction. Monitoring for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring for bleeding helps to assess the risk of hemorrhagic events, a known side effect of Clopidogrel. Additionally, regular monitoring of CBC with differential and platelet count is necessary to evaluate the drug's impact on blood cell counts and detect any abnormalities that may require intervention. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure patient safety and appropriate management during Clopidogrel therapy.

4. A client is starting a course of Metronidazole to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the client stop taking Metronidazole and notify the provider?

• A. Metallic taste
• B. Nausea
• C. Ataxia
• D. Dark-colored urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Ataxia.' Ataxia is a sign of central nervous system (CNS) toxicity, which can be a severe adverse effect of Metronidazole. Metallic taste and nausea are common side effects of Metronidazole but do not require stopping the medication unless they persist or worsen. Dark-colored urine is not typically associated with Metronidazole and does not indicate a severe adverse effect.

5. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and falls. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent these adverse effects by allowing the body to adjust to postural changes gradually, reducing the risk of significant blood pressure drops upon standing up quickly.

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