ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. What is the first action to take for a patient experiencing a seizure?
- A. Administer anticonvulsant medication
- B. Protect the patient's head
- C. Insert an oral airway
- D. Restrain the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The first action a nurse should take for a patient experiencing a seizure is to protect the patient's head. This is crucial to prevent head injuries during the seizure. Administering anticonvulsant medication may be necessary but is not the first action. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury as the patient may bite down during a seizure. Restraint is not recommended as it can lead to further harm.
2. Medications that reduce stomach acidity can impair the absorption of _____.
- A. calcium
- B. iron
- C. vitamin D
- D. vitamin C
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reduced stomach acidity impairs the absorption of iron, as an acidic environment is necessary for optimal iron absorption in the stomach. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as medications that reduce stomach acidity typically do not significantly affect the absorption of calcium, vitamin D, or vitamin C.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL. Which provider order should the nurse implement first?
- A. Encourage oral fluid intake.
- B. Connect the client to a cardiac monitor.
- C. Assess urinary output.
- D. Administer oral calcitonin (Calcimar).
Correct answer: Encourage oral fluid intake.
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage oral fluid intake. With a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL, the client is at risk of hypercalcemia. Encouraging oral fluid intake helps to promote hydration and can help prevent further elevation of calcium levels. Connecting the client to a cardiac monitor (Choice B) is important but not the first priority in this situation. Assessing urinary output (Choice C) is relevant but does not address the immediate concern of high serum calcium levels. Administering oral calcitonin (Calcimar) (Choice D) may be a treatment option later, but the first step should be to address hydration.
4. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
- B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
- C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
- D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.
5. A client with acute diverticulitis should have which intervention included in the care plan?
- A. Administer a cleansing enema.
- B. Initiate a low-fiber diet.
- C. Apply moist heat to the abdomen.
- D. Provide a clear liquid diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute diverticulitis is to initiate a low-fiber diet. A low-fiber diet helps manage acute diverticulitis by reducing irritation to the colon, allowing it to heal. Administering a cleansing enema (Choice A) can worsen diverticulitis by increasing pressure within the colon. Applying moist heat to the abdomen (Choice C) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying cause. Providing a clear liquid diet (Choice D) is not ideal for diverticulitis management as it lacks the necessary nutrients for healing and may not provide enough bulk to prevent further irritation.
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