ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid eating spicy foods.
- B. Eat three large meals each day.
- C. Lie down after meals.
- D. Increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
- A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute
- B. BUN 16 mg/dL
- C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
- D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney dysfunction, necessitating hemodialysis. The other options, BUN of 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus of 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not serve as indications for hemodialysis.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased urinary output.
- B. Weight gain.
- C. Blurred vision.
- D. Diaphoresis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased urinary output is a common finding in clients with diabetes mellitus due to hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis. This results in the body trying to eliminate excess glucose through urine, leading to increased urinary frequency and volume. Weight gain is not typically associated with diabetes mellitus but may occur in poorly controlled cases due to increased calorie intake. Blurred vision is more commonly associated with acute complications like hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is not a typical finding in diabetes mellitus but can be seen in conditions like hypoglycemia.
5. Which lab test is used to assess renal function?
- A. Check blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor serum creatinine
- C. Monitor BUN
- D. Check electrolyte levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor serum creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of renal function as it reflects the glomerular filtration rate. An increase in serum creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function. Checking blood glucose levels (choice A) is not specific to assessing renal function but is used to diagnose diabetes. Monitoring BUN (choice C) is important but not as specific as serum creatinine in assessing renal function. Checking electrolyte levels (choice D) is essential in assessing kidney function but is not as specific as monitoring serum creatinine.
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