a nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. When caring for a client with pneumonia, the nurse should expect tachypnea, which is rapid breathing. This occurs due to decreased oxygenation and lung function. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated with pneumonia; instead, tachycardia may be present. Hypertension (B) is not a common manifestation of pneumonia; instead, hypotension may occur due to sepsis. Hypothermia (D) is not a typical finding in pneumonia; fever or an elevated temperature is more common.

2. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.

3. A client with schizophrenia is beginning therapy with clozapine. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients should continue taking clozapine even if their symptoms improve. Abruptly discontinuing the medication can lead to relapse. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements regarding clozapine therapy. Regular blood work monitoring is necessary due to potential side effects, weight gain is a common side effect of clozapine, and reporting signs of fever is important as it can indicate a serious side effect of clozapine.

4. A client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of whole grains.' Whole grains are beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help promote heart health. Whole grains are high in fiber, which can help lower blood pressure. Option A is incorrect as fluid intake should be adequate but not restricted to 2 liters per day. Option C is incorrect as it is recommended to have smaller, more frequent meals rather than 3 large meals to help manage hypertension. Option D is incorrect; although foods high in potassium can be beneficial for hypertension, the most appropriate dietary modification to include in this scenario is increasing whole grain intake.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

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