Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Insert the catheter until urine flows, then advance 2.5 to 5 cm (1 to 2 in) further.
• B. Advance the catheter 7.5 to 10 cm (3 to 4 in) after urine begins to flow.
• C. Advance the catheter 17 to 22.5 cm (7 to 9 in) after urine begins to flow.
• D. Advance the catheter 5 to 7.5 cm (2 to 3 in) after urine begins to flow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client, it is crucial to advance the catheter 17 to 22.5 cm after urine begins to flow. This helps ensure proper placement in the male urethra, which is longer compared to females. Choice A is incorrect as advancing only 2.5 to 5 cm would not reach the correct placement in male clients. Choice B is incorrect as advancing 7.5 to 10 cm is insufficient to reach the appropriate location in male clients. Choice D is also incorrect as advancing 5 to 7.5 cm would likely not reach the desired placement in male clients.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should take this medication in the morning to reduce urination during the day.
• B. You may experience ringing in your ears as a side effect.
• C. This medication may cause your potassium level to decrease.
• D. You should consume foods high in potassium while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.

3. When discussing clients designating a health care proxy in situations requiring a durable power of attorney for health care (DPAHC), what information should the charge nurse include?

• A. The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the client's ability to do so.
• B. The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises.
• C. The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia.
• D. The proxy should manage legal issues for the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The charge nurse should include information that the proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia. This is a key function of a durable power of attorney for health care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a health care proxy's role is specifically related to making health care decisions, not financial decisions, legal issues, or decisions made under anesthesia.

4. A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who has paraplegia and has an area of nonblanchable erythema over the ischium. Which intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Place the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion.
• B. Teach the client to shift his weight every 15 minutes while sitting.
• C. Turn and reposition the client every 3 hours.
• D. Assess pressure points every 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with nonblanchable erythema over the ischium is to teach the client to shift his weight every 15 minutes while sitting. This action helps relieve pressure on the affected area and prevents further skin breakdown. Placing the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion (Choice A) may not address the need for frequent weight shifts. Turning and repositioning the client every 3 hours (Choice C) is important for overall skin health but may not provide adequate relief for the specific area of nonblanchable erythema. Assessing pressure points every 24 hours (Choice D) is not frequent enough to prevent worsening of the skin condition in this case.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Tracheal deviation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.

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