ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the unit due to a staffing shortage. Which of the following clients should the nurse delegate to the LPN?
- A. A client who has an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.
- B. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
- C. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube.
- D. A client who fractured his femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube can be delegated to an LPN as this involves routine postoperative care. Option A involves administering packed RBCs which requires assessment and monitoring for potential adverse reactions, not suitable for delegation to an LPN. Option B requires neurological assessment and close monitoring due to the concussion, which is beyond the scope of an LPN. Option D involves a client with a recent fracture and shortness of breath, which requires urgent assessment and intervention beyond the LPN's scope of practice.
2. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?
- A. Platelet count
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the transmission of the disease?
- A. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- B. Place the client in airborne isolation.
- C. Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client.
- D. Keep the client's door closed at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Place the client in airborne isolation.' Tuberculosis is an airborne disease transmitted through droplet nuclei. Placing the client in airborne isolation helps prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A, placing the client in droplet isolation, is incorrect because tuberculosis is not transmitted through large droplets. Choice C, wearing a surgical mask when providing care to the client, is not sufficient as airborne precautions are necessary. Choice D, keeping the client's door closed at all times, does not directly address the prevention of disease transmission in this case.
4. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 90/min
- B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
- C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with chronic heart failure. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?
- A. Follow a 3g sodium diet.
- B. Drink at least 3 liters of fluid per day.
- C. Place the client's lower extremities on two pillows.
- D. Maintain the client's oxygen saturation at 89%.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Follow a 3g sodium diet. For clients with chronic heart failure, limiting sodium intake is crucial to prevent fluid retention and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, causing the heart to work harder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking excessive fluid can worsen fluid retention in heart failure, elevating the workload of the heart. Placing the client's lower extremities on two pillows is a positioning intervention to alleviate edema, not a dietary recommendation. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 89% is more related to respiratory status rather than dietary management of chronic heart failure.
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