Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! Dry mucous membranes are a common finding in clients with dehydration. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid volume in the body, resulting in dryness of mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with dehydration, as the body tries to compensate for decreased fluid volume by increasing heart rate. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a possible finding in dehydration due to reduced circulating volume. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is more commonly seen in conditions like respiratory distress or metabolic acidosis, rather than dehydration.

2. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change of shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. Client placed in restraints due to aggressive behavior
• B. A new client with a history of 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
• C. Client receiving PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for anxiety
• D. Client receiving first ECT treatment today

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should plan to assess the client placed in restraints due to aggressive behavior first. Clients in restraints require immediate attention and frequent monitoring for safety. While weight loss, medication administration, and ECT treatment are important, the client in restraints is in a critical situation that requires immediate assessment and intervention.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

4. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
• C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.

5. What is the primary nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Monitor vital signs
• D. Check oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the primary nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery because it helps address any potential hypoxia that may be contributing to the patient's confusion. While repositioning the patient, monitoring vital signs, and checking oxygen saturation are important nursing interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in ensuring adequate oxygenation levels, which is crucial in managing post-surgery confusion.

Similar Questions