ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Dry mucous membranes
- D. Tachypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct! Dry mucous membranes are a common finding in clients with dehydration. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid volume in the body, resulting in dryness of mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with dehydration, as the body tries to compensate for decreased fluid volume by increasing heart rate. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a possible finding in dehydration due to reduced circulating volume. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is more commonly seen in conditions like respiratory distress or metabolic acidosis, rather than dehydration.
2. A client with vision loss is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Keep objects in the client's room in the same place
- B. Ensure there is high-wattage lighting in the client's room
- C. Approach the client from the side
- D. Touch the client gently to announce presence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep objects in the client's room in the same place. This helps individuals with vision loss navigate their environment more easily by creating a familiar and consistent layout. Choice B, ensuring high-wattage lighting, may not be suitable for all clients with vision loss and can cause discomfort or glare. Approaching the client from the side (Choice C) can startle them and is not recommended. Touching the client (Choice D) without warning may cause anxiety or distress, so it's important to announce presence verbally.
3. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1-day-old and receiving phototherapy for jaundice. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Feed the infant 30 ml (1 oz) of glucose water every 2 hours.
- B. Keep the infant's head covered with a cap.
- C. Ensure that the newborn wears a diaper.
- D. Apply lotion to the newborn every 4 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ensure that the newborn wears a diaper. This is important to prevent skin irritation during phototherapy. Choice A is incorrect as newborns should be breastfed or formula-fed, not given glucose water. Choice B is unnecessary and may interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy. Choice D is inappropriate as lotions can interfere with the phototherapy and increase the risk of skin damage.
4. A client at 10 weeks of gestation with a history of UTIs is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should drink 240 ml (8 oz) of water before and after intercourse.
- B. You should avoid drinking orange juice because it increases the risk of infection.
- C. You should empty your bladder after intercourse to help prevent infection.
- D. You should take a hot bath to help prevent infection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is to advise the client to empty their bladder after intercourse to help prevent UTIs. Emptying the bladder after intercourse helps reduce the risk of UTIs by flushing bacteria from the urethra. Choice A is incorrect as drinking water before and after intercourse is not specifically related to preventing UTIs. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between orange juice consumption and UTI risk. Choice D is incorrect as taking a hot bath can actually increase the risk of UTIs by promoting bacterial growth.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
- A. First-degree AV block.
- B. Premature ventricular contraction.
- C. Sinus bradycardia.
- D. Atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
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