ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Dry mucous membranes
- D. Tachypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct! Dry mucous membranes are a common finding in clients with dehydration. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid volume in the body, resulting in dryness of mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with dehydration, as the body tries to compensate for decreased fluid volume by increasing heart rate. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a possible finding in dehydration due to reduced circulating volume. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is more commonly seen in conditions like respiratory distress or metabolic acidosis, rather than dehydration.
2. A nurse is caring for a 1-day-old newborn who has jaundice and is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Feed the infant 30 ml (1 oz) of glucose water every 2 hours.
- B. Keep the infant's head uncovered.
- C. Ensure that the newborn wears a diaper.
- D. Apply lotion to the newborn every 4 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ensure that the newborn wears a diaper. This is important to prevent irritation during phototherapy, as exposure to light can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Feeding the infant glucose water is unnecessary and not indicated for jaundice treatment. Keeping the infant's head uncovered allows the light to reach the skin effectively. Applying lotion to the newborn every 4 hours can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy and is not recommended.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has a body mass index (BMI) of 24. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should increase your caloric intake by 600 calories per day.
- B. You should increase your caloric intake by 300 calories per day.
- C. You should maintain your prepregnancy caloric intake during the first trimester.
- D. You should increase your caloric intake by 150 calories per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the first trimester, it is recommended to increase caloric intake by 300 calories per day to support fetal growth and development. Choice A suggesting an increase of 600 calories is excessive and unnecessary. Choice C advising to maintain prepregnancy caloric intake could lead to inadequate nutrition for the developing fetus. Choice D recommending an increase of 150 calories is insufficient to meet the increased energy demands of pregnancy.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a client with a prescription for combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Thrombophlebitis
- C. Diverticulosis
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptives. Hyperthyroidism may affect thyroid hormone levels but does not directly contraindicate oral contraceptives. Diverticulosis is a condition related to the digestive system and does not impact the use of oral contraceptives. Hypocalcemia, a low calcium level in the blood, is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives.
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