ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the healthcare professional perform first?
- A. Urine output
- B. Bowel sounds
- C. Pain level
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate because respiratory depression is a life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention to prevent harm. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are important but should come after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable as it is the most critical assessment to prevent serious complications associated with opioid use.
2. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which preexisting condition can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. Breast cancer
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ketamine can produce psychological effects like hallucinations. Patients with schizophrenia may be more prone to experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms when exposed to Ketamine due to its potential to worsen psychotic symptoms. Therefore, schizophrenia can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for the use of Ketamine.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about adding more fiber to his diet. The nurse should teach the client that which of the following foods has the highest fiber content?
- A. 1 cup cooked sweet potato
- B. 1 slice rye toast
- C. 1 cup raw watermelon
- D. 1 oz cashews
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cashews have the highest fiber content among the options listed, which is important for improving digestive health.
4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain regarding this risk?
- A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer.
- C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
- D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a reduced risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it has shown a protective effect. Choice D is incorrect because while finasteride may lower the risk of prostate cancer, regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and treatment if needed.
5. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours
- B. Place the client in a supine position while resting
- C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, it is important to involve the client in cardiac rehabilitation to help them recover and manage their condition effectively. Performing an ECG every 12 hours is not necessary unless there are specific indications for it. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can increase venous return, potentially worsening cardiac workload. Drawing troponin levels every 4 hours is excessive and not recommended as troponin levels usually peak within 24-48 hours post-MI and then gradually decline.
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