ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client presents in the Emergency Department with chest pain. Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause chest pain?
- A. Arthritis
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Gastric reflux
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Arthritis is a condition primarily affecting the joints and is not known to cause chest pain. Peptic ulcer disease, myocardial infarction, and gastric reflux are conditions that can present with chest pain due to various reasons such as inflammation, ischemia, or reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, respectively.
2. A client has been prescribed Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Incorrect Options Rationale: - Option B, Hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. - Option C, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Valsartan use. - Option D, Hypercalcemia, is not a known adverse effect of Valsartan; instead, Valsartan can lead to hyperkalemia.
3. A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Weigh yourself daily.
- B. Limit sodium intake.
- C. Increase potassium intake.
- D. Avoid potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when starting furosemide is to weigh yourself daily. Daily weighing helps monitor for fluid loss or retention, which is crucial when taking a diuretic like furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although monitoring sodium intake and potassium levels are important when taking furosemide, the most immediate and direct way to assess the medication's effectiveness and the body's response is through daily weight monitoring.
4. Which of the following conditions are not treated with Barbiturates?
- A. Seizures
- B. Hypotension
- C. Insomnia
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension is not treated with barbiturates. Barbiturates are primarily used for treating seizures, insomnia, and anxiety, but they are not indicated for the treatment of hypotension.
5. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?
- A. Varicella vaccine
- B. Rubella vaccine
- C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
- D. Measles vaccine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the inactivated influenza vaccine. During pregnancy, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend the inactivated influenza vaccine as safe for pregnant individuals. This vaccination is crucial to protect both the pregnant person and their developing baby from influenza-related complications. It is essential to avoid live vaccines, such as varicella (chickenpox), rubella, and measles vaccines during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of harm to the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because live vaccines are generally contraindicated during pregnancy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access