a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic myeloid leukemia and is receiving hydroxyure which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client with chronic myeloid leukemia is receiving hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving hydroxyurea, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count.

2. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of heparin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct test to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin's action is to prolong the clotting time, and aPTT reflects this effect. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, platelet count assesses for potential thrombocytopenia, and WBC count evaluates for signs of infection or inflammation, not the therapeutic effect of heparin.

4. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering oral hygiene every 2 hours is essential for a client receiving opioid analgesics to prevent dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting, which are common adverse effects associated with opioid use. This intervention promotes comfort and enhances the client's well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate for a client in labor receiving opioid analgesics, as it may be challenging and unnecessary during this time. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's pain level and the duration of action of the opioid. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but the priority in this case is to address the client's comfort and well-being by offering oral hygiene.

5. A toddler is being admitted to the hospital after an Acetaminophen overdose. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of Acetaminophen overdose, acetylcysteine is the antidote of choice. Acetylcysteine helps prevent liver damage by replenishing depleted glutathione levels, which is essential for detoxifying acetaminophen metabolites. Pegfilgrastim is a medication used to stimulate white blood cell production, Misoprostol is a medication for preventing stomach ulcers, and Naltrexone is used for treating opioid addiction and alcoholism, but none of these are indicated for Acetaminophen overdose.

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