Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Electrolyte levels
• D. Kidney function

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and impaired kidney function can lead to an increased risk of lactic acidosis, a serious side effect. Therefore, it is important to monitor kidney function regularly while a client is on Metformin. Hemoglobin A1C is used to monitor long-term glucose control, but kidney function is the priority for monitoring Metformin therapy.

2. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• B. I can expect my heart rate to increase while taking this medication.
• C. This medication will cause my urine to turn orange.
• D. I will stop taking this medication if I experience headaches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.

3. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

4. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Asthma
• B. Diabetes mellitus
• C. Hypertension
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication for Propranolol due to the potential of worsening bronchoconstriction and causing respiratory distress in individuals with this condition. Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and glaucoma are not contraindications for Propranolol.

5. A client has a new prescription for Ramelteon and is receiving teaching from a nurse. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods while taking this medication?

• A. Baked potato
• B. Fried chicken
• C. Whole-grain bread
• D. Citrus fruits

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fried chicken. High-fat foods like fried chicken can prolong the absorption of Ramelteon, potentially reducing its effectiveness. It is important to avoid such foods to ensure the medication works as intended.

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