ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer the medication intramuscularly.
- B. Inject the medication into the client's abdomen.
- C. Massage the injection site after administration.
- D. Aspirate for blood return before administering.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the client's abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that should be administered subcutaneously into the abdomen to ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should not be administered intramuscularly. Choice C is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Choice D is incorrect because aspirating for blood return is not necessary before administering a subcutaneous injection like enoxaparin.
2. When providing dietary teaching for a new prescription of phenelzine, which of the following foods should be avoided?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Yogurt
- C. Cream Cheese
- D. Fruit Juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Broccoli. Foods high in tyramine, such as broccoli, should be avoided when taking MAOIs like phenelzine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Yogurt, cream cheese, and fruit juice do not contain significant levels of tyramine and can be safely consumed while on phenelzine.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What question should the nurse ask?
- A. Do you understand the voices are not real?
- B. Why do you think the voices are talking to you?
- C. Have you tried going to a quiet place when this occurs?
- D. What helps you ignore the voices?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Exploring strategies to ignore the hallucinations can help clients manage symptoms.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
5. A client who is postoperative following hip replacement surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent dislocation of the hip?
- A. Position the client's legs in adduction
- B. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning
- C. Keep the client in a low Fowler's position
- D. Turn the client onto the affected side
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing a pillow between the client's legs when turning is essential to prevent hip dislocation post hip replacement surgery. This action helps maintain proper alignment of the hip joint and prevents adduction, which can lead to dislocation. Positioning the client's legs in adduction (choice A) can increase the risk of hip dislocation. Keeping the client in a low Fowler's position (choice C) or turning the client onto the affected side (choice D) does not directly address hip dislocation prevention.
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