Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who reports a latex allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a supine position.
• B. Use non-latex gloves when administering the medication.
• C. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
• D. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when preparing to administer an IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This measure helps prevent allergic reactions in clients with a known latex allergy. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to preventing a latex allergy reaction. Using non-latex gloves (Choice B) is important for protecting the nurse or caregiver from latex exposure but does not prevent the client's allergic reaction. While using latex-free syringes (Choice C) is a good practice, ensuring the IV port is latex-free is more crucial in preventing an allergic response in the client.

2. Which medication is commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism?

• A. Methimazole
• B. Levothyroxine
• C. Propylthiouracil
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Methimazole is the correct answer. It is commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Levothyroxine, on the other hand, is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by providing synthetic thyroid hormone. Propylthiouracil is another medication used to treat hyperthyroidism by blocking the production of thyroid hormones. Aspirin is not used to treat hyperthyroidism, but rather for pain relief and reducing inflammation.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is 24 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 90/min
• B. Serosanguineous drainage in the surgical drain
• C. Temperature 38.6°C (101.5°F)
• D. Urinary output 60 mL/hr

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F) is above the normal range and indicates a fever, which is a concerning finding postoperatively. Fever can be a sign of infection, so the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within expected parameters for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 90/min, serosanguineous drainage in the surgical drain, and a urinary output of 60 mL/hr are all common postoperative findings that do not raise immediate concerns.

4. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

• A. Potassium
• B. PT/INR
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

5. A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
• B. Heart rate of 68/min.
• C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.

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