which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.

2. What is the most appropriate action when a patient experiences chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering aspirin is the correct initial action when a patient experiences chest pain. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation and is a standard first-line treatment for chest pain related to possible cardiac issues. Administering nitroglycerin may be appropriate based on the underlying cause of chest pain, but aspirin is typically administered first. Repositioning the patient is not the primary intervention for chest pain, and preparing for surgery is not the immediate action required unless indicated by a healthcare provider after assessment.

3. A nurse is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The guardian asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A lack of tear production is a sign of severe dehydration in infants, indicating the need for IV therapy. Option B, bulging fontanels, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, not dehydration. Option C, breathing slower than normal, and Option D, decreasing heart rate, are not specific signs of severe dehydration that would indicate the need for IV therapy in this case.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

5. A nurse is providing education to a client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has gestational diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make is that gestational diabetes can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life. This information is crucial for the client's understanding of the potential long-term implications of gestational diabetes. Monitoring blood glucose levels closely (Choice B) is also important but does not address the long-term risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Choices A and D are incorrect as increasing protein intake during pregnancy and avoiding exercise are not recommended strategies for managing gestational diabetes.

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