ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. When teaching a client with a new prescription for warfarin, which statement should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid using a soft toothbrush.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Report any signs of bleeding to your provider.
- D. Use an electric shaver for shaving.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include when teaching a client with a new prescription for warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, a potential side effect of warfarin therapy that needs prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while oral hygiene measures, dietary considerations, and skin care are important, they are not the priority when teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Monitoring for and reporting signs of bleeding is crucial due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
2. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?
- A. Shuffling gait
- B. Neck spasms
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Impotence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.
3. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fever
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever. Fever can be an indication of an infection, a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring and reporting fever promptly can help in early intervention to prevent further complications. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.
4. A client who has a new prescription for erythromycin is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with a full glass of water.
- B. I should avoid direct sunlight while taking this medication.
- C. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. I should take an antacid 30 minutes before taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythromycin should be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water to increase absorption. Taking it with milk (choice A) or an antacid (choice D) can interfere with its absorption. Avoiding direct sunlight (choice B) is not directly related to the administration of erythromycin.
5. A hospitalized client receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Vitamin K1
- B. Atropine
- C. Protamine
- D. Calcium gluconate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing a serious complication of heparin therapy, likely due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Protamine is the antidote for heparin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. It is essential to administer protamine promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and manage the bleeding. Vitamin K1 is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or some types of poisoning. Calcium gluconate is used to manage hyperkalemia or calcium channel blocker toxicity, not to reverse heparin's effects.
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