a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for albuterol which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. When educating a client with a new prescription for albuterol, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shaking the albuterol inhaler before use is essential to ensure that the medication is evenly mixed and properly delivered when inhaled. This maximizes the effectiveness of the medication in opening the airways and relieving symptoms of bronchospasm.

2. A patient is receiving spironolactone for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can lead to hyperkalemia due to its mechanism of action. Hyperkalemia, or elevated potassium levels, can result in serious cardiac complications and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report any signs or symptoms of hyperkalemia to prevent potential adverse outcomes in the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not associated with hypernatremia, hyponatremia, or hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia is the critical finding that the nurse should report in a patient receiving spironolactone.

3. A client has a prescription for gentamicin for the treatment of an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine can indicate nephrotoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to the presence of red blood cells in the urine as a sign of renal impairment. Monitoring for this finding is crucial to detect and manage adverse reactions promptly. High blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin use. Low urine output (Choice C) is more suggestive of kidney injury rather than nephrotoxicity specifically related to gentamicin. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not a common indicator of adverse reactions to gentamicin.

4. A client with a new prescription for Escitalopram for the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is being taught by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed tapered dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. This gradual reduction helps minimize potential withdrawal symptoms and ensures a safer discontinuation process. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking escitalopram on an empty stomach, following a low-sodium diet, and not crushing the medication are not directly related to the safe and effective use of the medication or its discontinuation process.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.

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