ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of Hydromorphone IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication over 5 minutes.
- B. Administer a dose of Naloxone prior to giving the Hydromorphone.
- C. Assess the client's blood pressure prior to administration.
- D. Inject the medication into the client's subcutaneous tissue.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The healthcare professional should administer IV Hydromorphone slowly over 5 minutes to reduce the risk of hypotension and respiratory depression. Rapid administration can lead to adverse effects due to its potency. Choice B is incorrect because Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, not routinely administered with Hydromorphone. Choice C is important but not specific to the administration of Hydromorphone. Choice D is incorrect as Hydromorphone is intended for intravenous use, not subcutaneous injection.
2. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
- C. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that should be tapered off gradually to prevent rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. Abruptly stopping Metoprolol can lead to serious complications, so it is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on discontinuation. Choice A is incorrect because Metoprolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as Metoprolol is not typically associated with causing hyperglycemia. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods specifically due to taking Metoprolol.
3. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase your fluid intake.
- C. Avoid foods high in calcium.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol can increase the risk of kidney stones as a side effect. To prevent this adverse effect, it is essential for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration can help in preventing the formation of kidney stones by keeping urine dilute and flushing out substances that can lead to stone formation.
4. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:
- A. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
- B. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure
- C. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs
- D. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.
5. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Cardiac dysrhythmia
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Renal failure
- D. Aplastic anemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.
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