ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare provider's priority?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Pain level
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Level of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority assessment for a healthcare provider preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as a significant adverse effect, so monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence over other assessments because respiratory depression can lead to serious complications. While pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are important assessments, they are not the priority when administering Morphine, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more immediate concern.
2. A client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
- B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
- C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
- D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L, immediate gastric lavage is appropriate for severe toxicity. Gastric lavage can help lower the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed lithium from the stomach.
3. When educating a client with a new prescription for Omeprazole to manage GERD, which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication before meals.
- B. You may need to take this medication for a long time.
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin C while taking this medication.
- D. Expect immediate relief of symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication before meals. Omeprazole should be taken before meals to ensure its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production. This timing allows the medication to work on reducing acid secretion when the stomach is most actively producing it, leading to better control of symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because not all patients with GERD need to take Omeprazole for the rest of their lives; the duration of treatment varies. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase vitamin C intake while taking Omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect because Omeprazole may take a few days to start providing symptom relief, so immediate relief should not be expected.
4. A client has a prescription for Amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the nurse to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Serum creatinine.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Serum sodium.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect that can be monitored by checking the client's serum creatinine levels. Regular monitoring of serum creatinine helps in early identification of kidney damage and allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. Choice B, serum potassium, is not typically associated with adverse effects of Amphotericin B. Choice C, serum sodium, and choice D, serum calcium, are not directly affected by Amphotericin B and are not primary indicators of its adverse effects.
5. When educating a client starting Simvastatin, which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take this medication in the evening.
- B. Change positions slowly when rising from a chair.
- C. Maintain a consistent intake of green leafy vegetables.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 L per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take Simvastatin in the evening. This timing is important because the body synthesizes the most cholesterol at night. By taking the medication in the evening, its effectiveness is increased, leading to better outcomes for the client.
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