Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?

• A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
• B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
• C. Severe pain around the eyes
• D. Intraocular pressure 12 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.

2. A client with early Parkinson's disease has been prescribed pramipexole. What adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Increased salivation
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Discoloration of urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations within 9 months of the initial dose, which may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Monitoring for hallucinations is crucial to ensure early detection and management to prevent any adverse outcomes. Choice B, increased salivation, is not a common adverse effect of pramipexole. Choice C, diarrhea, is not typically associated with pramipexole use. Choice D, discoloration of urine, is not a known adverse effect of pramipexole and is not typically a concern with this medication.

3. A client is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline with a history of preterm labor. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I can increase my activity now that I've started on this medication.
• B. I will increase my daily fluid intake to 3 quarts.
• C. I will report increasing intensity of contractions to my doctor.
• D. I am glad this will prevent preterm labor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider as these are signs of preterm labor. Monitoring contractions is crucial for the management of preterm labor and the safety of both the client and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing activity, fluid intake, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor do not address the essential need to report changes in contractions, which are a vital sign of potential complications in preterm labor.

4. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

5. A healthcare professional in a provider's clinic is caring for a client who reports erectile dysfunction and requests a prescription for sildenafil. Which of the following medications currently prescribed for the client is a contraindication to taking sildenafil?

• A. Isosorbide
• B. Phenytoin
• C. Metronidazole
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sildenafil is contraindicated with nitrates like isosorbide due to the risk of severe hypotension. Isosorbide is a nitrate that can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Therefore, it is essential to avoid concurrent use of isosorbide and sildenafil to prevent adverse effects. Phenytoin, metronidazole, and prednisone do not have significant interactions with sildenafil and are not contraindicated when used together.

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