a nurse in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle closure glaucom which of the following find
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin and other NSAIDs also affect platelet function and can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with Clopidogrel. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid taking aspirin while on this medication to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take Clopidogrel with food, avoid foods high in potassium, or take it at bedtime. The key instruction here is to avoid aspirin to prevent potential bleeding complications.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.

4. A client prescribed Warfarin is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can reduce the medication's anticoagulant effect. Therefore, clients taking Warfarin should be advised to avoid or consume a consistent amount of foods high in vitamin K to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables, dairy products, or avoiding foods high in iron are not directly related to the interaction with Warfarin.

5. A client has a prescription for Prednisone for the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Prednisone can cause hypokalemia, leading to low potassium levels. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods helps prevent this imbalance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Prednisone with food, decreasing calcium-rich foods, or avoiding grapefruit are not specifically related to addressing the side effect of hypokalemia associated with Prednisone.

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