Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?

• A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
• B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
• C. Severe pain around the eyes
• D. Intraocular pressure 12 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.

2. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Expect a rapid heart rate.
• B. Take the medication with meals.
• C. Report any signs of restlessness or involuntary movements.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client about Metoclopramide is to report any signs of restlessness or involuntary movements. Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness or involuntary movements. It is essential for clients to notify their healthcare provider if they experience these symptoms to receive appropriate management.

3. A client in a long-term care facility has Hypothyroidism and a new prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following dosage schedules should the nurse expect for this client?

• A. The client will start at a high dose, and the dose will be tapered as needed.
• B. The client will remain on the initial dosage during the course of treatment.
• C. The client's dosage will be adjusted daily based on blood levels.
• D. The client will start on a low dose, which will be gradually increased.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should expect that levothyroxine will be started at a low dose and gradually increased over several weeks. This cautious approach is crucial, especially in older adult clients, to prevent toxicity and ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes for managing hypothyroidism. Choice A is incorrect because starting at a high dose and tapering as needed is not the standard approach for levothyroxine. Choice B is incorrect because the initial dosage is typically adjusted to reach the optimal therapeutic dose. Choice C is incorrect as adjusting the dosage daily based on blood levels is not necessary for levothyroxine, as it has a long half-life and requires time to reach a steady state.

4. When assessing a client taking Lithium Carbonate for Bipolar disorder, which finding should the nurse recognize as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?

• A. Severe hypertension
• B. Coarse tremors
• C. Constipation
• D. Muscle spasm

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Coarse tremors. Coarse tremors are a common sign of Lithium toxicity. Monitoring for tremors is crucial as they can indicate a potentially serious complication that requires immediate intervention. While other options such as severe hypertension, constipation, and muscle spasm may be symptoms of various conditions, they are not typically associated with Lithium toxicity. Severe hypertension is not a common sign of Lithium toxicity; constipation is not a typical symptom of Lithium toxicity either, and muscle spasm is not a direct indicator of Lithium toxicity.

5. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
• B. Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.
• C. Allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking Zolpidem.
• D. To increase the effectiveness of Zolpidem, take it with a bedtime snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified under Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is essential for the client to inform the provider if she plans to become pregnant as Zolpidem use during pregnancy may pose risks to the fetus. This precaution allows for appropriate assessment and possible adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure the safety of both the client and the developing baby. Choice B is incorrect because Zolpidem is usually taken immediately before bedtime, not 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as Zolpidem is known for its quick onset of action, and the client does not need to allocate a specific amount of time for sleep. Choice D is incorrect as taking Zolpidem with food, especially a bedtime snack, may delay its onset of action.

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