a nurse in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle closure glaucom which of the following find
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product. This action is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction, which is caused by ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product before the transfusion ensures that there are no errors in identification, reducing the risk of a potentially life-threatening reaction. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of transfusion safety but are not directly related to preventing acute hemolytic reactions. Ensuring a patent IV line, monitoring vital signs, and staying with the client are all essential during transfusion but do not specifically address the risk of ABO or Rh incompatibility reactions.

3. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol is to drink 2 liters of water daily. This helps reduce the risk of kidney stones, a potential side effect of allopurinol use. Adequate hydration is essential to prevent kidney stone formation and maintain kidney function while taking this medication.

4. When taking Digoxin, low levels of what can cause toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low potassium levels can lead to Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites on the sodium-potassium pump. When potassium levels are low, there is an increased risk of Digoxin binding and toxicity. Choice B (Calcium) is incorrect because low calcium levels are not directly linked to Digoxin toxicity. Choice C (Sodium) is incorrect as low sodium levels do not cause Digoxin toxicity. Choice D (Magnesium) is incorrect as low magnesium levels do not contribute to Digoxin toxicity.

5. A client is prescribed Lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Lithium, monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with lithium toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.

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