Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Alteplase. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication within 4 hours of the onset of symptoms.
• B. Reconstitute the medication with sterile saline.
• C. Administer heparin concurrently with the Alteplase infusion.
• D. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Patients receiving Alteplase are at risk for bleeding complications, including intracranial bleeding. Monitoring for changes in the level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate early signs of bleeding, such as increased intracranial pressure. This rapid assessment allows for timely intervention and prevention of further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Administering Alteplase within 4 hours of symptom onset is related to the time-sensitive nature of thrombolytic therapy for conditions like acute myocardial infarction or ischemic stroke. Reconstituting Alteplase with sterile saline is a correct step in preparing the medication for administration. Administering heparin concurrently with Alteplase is generally avoided due to the increased risk of bleeding.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.

3. A client with angina is being taught how to use nitroglycerin transdermal ointment. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the prior dose before applying a new dose.
• B. Rub the ointment directly into the skin until it is no longer visible.
• C. Cover the applied ointment with a clean gauze pad.
• D. Apply the ointment to the same skin area each time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the prior dose before applying a new one to prevent toxicity. Nitroglycerin ointment can cause adverse effects if accumulated doses are not removed. Rubbing the ointment until it's not visible or covering it with gauze may alter absorption. Applying it to the same area each time can lead to skin irritation or desensitization.

4. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. The client reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What should the nurse do?

• A. Administer the prescribed dose.
• B. Withhold the medication.
• C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
• D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should withhold the medication and inform the provider of the client's previous rash after taking penicillin. This history suggests a potential allergic reaction to penicillin, which can range from mild to severe anaphylaxis. Notifying the provider allows for an alternative antibiotic to be prescribed, considering the client's allergy to penicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering a medication that could potentially lead to a severe allergic reaction in the client. Administering the prescribed dose (Choice A) could be harmful due to the potential for an allergic reaction. Changing the prescription to an oral form (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of a potential penicillin allergy. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice D) without consulting the provider may not be sufficient to prevent a severe allergic reaction.

5. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea associated with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.

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