ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client has a new prescription for Captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Neutropenia is a serious adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors like Captopril. Neutropenia refers to a decreased level of neutrophils, which are important white blood cells in fighting infection. Monitoring the client's complete blood count (CBC) is essential to detect neutropenia early. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is more commonly associated with diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is an increase in sodium levels, not typically caused by Captopril. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors like Captopril.
2. A client has a new prescription for Alteplase. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication within 4 hours of the onset of symptoms.
- B. Reconstitute the medication with sterile saline.
- C. Administer heparin concurrently with the Alteplase infusion.
- D. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Patients receiving Alteplase are at risk for bleeding complications, including intracranial bleeding. Monitoring for changes in the level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate early signs of bleeding, such as increased intracranial pressure. This rapid assessment allows for timely intervention and prevention of further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Administering Alteplase within 4 hours of symptom onset is related to the time-sensitive nature of thrombolytic therapy for conditions like acute myocardial infarction or ischemic stroke. Reconstituting Alteplase with sterile saline is a correct step in preparing the medication for administration. Administering heparin concurrently with Alteplase is generally avoided due to the increased risk of bleeding.
3. While caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy, which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. PT
- B. INR
- C. aPTT
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin, which primarily affects this pathway by potentiating antithrombin III. Monitoring the aPTT helps ensure that the client's blood is within the therapeutic range to prevent thrombus formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are used to monitor Warfarin therapy, not Heparin. Platelet count is important in assessing for thrombocytopenia but is not a specific indicator of Heparin therapy effectiveness.
4. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take the medication with a high-fiber meal.
- B. I should report any vision changes to my healthcare provider.
- C. I will take the medication if my heart rate is below 60 bpm.
- D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Visual disturbances, such as blurred vision or seeing halos, can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for the client to report any changes in vision to their healthcare provider promptly to prevent serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because taking Digoxin with a high-fiber meal can affect its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because taking Digoxin based on heart rate alone is not recommended without healthcare provider supervision. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between Digoxin and dairy products.
5. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine has been prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks about the purpose of Methylnaltrexone. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
- B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
- C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
- D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unresponsive to laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It functions by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, helping alleviate constipation associated with opioid use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations, prevent dependence on Morphine, or work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to relieve opioid-induced constipation.
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