ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?
- A. Intestinal ileus
- B. Neutropenia
- C. Delirium
- D. Hyperthermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.
2. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
- B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
- C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
- D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is receiving IV Opioid analgesics during labor, the nurse should offer oral hygiene every 2 hours. Opioid analgesics can cause adverse effects like dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting. Providing oral hygiene care helps alleviate these symptoms and maintains the client's comfort and well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate during labor as mobility may be limited. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's needs and the progress of labor. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but it is not specifically related to the client receiving IV Opioid analgesics.
3. A healthcare provider is providing instructions to the parent of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. You should not use this medication for an acute asthma attack.'
- B. Tremors may be an adverse effect of this medication.'
- C. Long-term use of this medication can lead to hyperglycemia.'
- D. This medication can inhibit skeletal growth.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tremors may occur as a result of excessive stimulation of beta2 receptors in skeletal muscles when using Albuterol. It is important to educate the parent about potential adverse effects to ensure proper monitoring and management of the adolescent client's medication regimen.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so the nurse should monitor the client for hyperkalemia, which can cause muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.
5. In an acute mental health facility, a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal has a new prescription for Clonidine. What action should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Administer the Clonidine as prescribed.
- B. Provide ice chips to the patient.
- C. Educate the patient on Clonidine's effects.
- D. Obtain baseline vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is essential for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is crucial for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the patient on Clonidine's effects are important tasks but obtaining baseline vital signs takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and proper management.
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