ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?
- A. Intestinal ileus
- B. Neutropenia
- C. Delirium
- D. Hyperthermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?
- A. aPTT of 90 seconds
- B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
- C. INR of 1.0
- D. Hgb of 15 g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.
3. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?
- A. Dry oral mucous membranes
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
- D. Anorexia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.
4. While caring for a client taking Propylthiouracil, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Heat intolerance
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is taking Propylthiouracil, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as it is an adverse effect of this medication. Propylthiouracil can lead to a decrease in heart rate, which is known as bradycardia. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. The other options, such as insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss, are not commonly associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for monitoring while the client is on this medication.
5. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?
- A. “Angina usually resolves with rest, and is rarely fatal, while a myocardial infarction necessitates immediate treatment and can be life-threatening.”
- B. “There is a clear distinction between the two. You will receive treatment based on the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.”
- C. “Both conditions result from a clot obstructing the coronary arteries. Angina occurs with the blockage of a small vessel, whereas a myocardial infarction occurs with a blockage of a large vessel.”
- D. “Angina may not cause as intense chest pain, whereas a myocardial infarction always presents with severe chest pain.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.
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