ATI RN
ATI RN Adult Medical Surgical Online Practice 2023 A
1. A client who experienced a femur fracture 8 hr ago now reports sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Provide high-flow oxygen.
- B. Check the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
- C. Administer an IV vasopressor medication.
- D. Monitor the client for headache.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the priority action is to provide high-flow oxygen to the client. Sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and stabilizes the client's condition. Checking for Chvostek's sign, administering IV vasopressors, or monitoring for a headache are not the immediate priorities in this critical situation.
2. A client is postoperative, and a nurse is developing a plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to prevent pulmonary complications?
- A. Perform range-of-motion exercises
- B. Place suction equipment at the bedside
- C. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer
- D. Administer an expectorant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer is vital in preventing pulmonary complications postoperatively. The incentive spirometer helps the client perform deep breathing exercises, promoting lung expansion, and preventing atelectasis. Range-of-motion exercises help prevent musculoskeletal complications, while placing suction equipment at the bedside is important but not directly related to preventing pulmonary complications. Administering an expectorant may help with clearing secretions but is not as effective in preventing postoperative pulmonary complications as using an incentive spirometer.
3. A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations of this condition?
- A. Severe dyspnea
- B. Nausea
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to hypoxia. Symptoms of hypoxia include severe dyspnea (A), decreased level of consciousness (C), and headache (D) due to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain. Nausea (B) is not a typical manifestation of acute respiratory failure and is not directly related to the lack of oxygen in the body. Therefore, the nurse should not monitor the client for nausea as a direct consequence of ARF.
4. A client underwent a total laryngectomy. Which of the following is the priority observation in the client's care?
- A. Patency of the intravenous line
- B. Level of pain
- C. Integrity of the dressing
- D. Need for suctioning
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following a total laryngectomy, maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction due to secretions or blood clots. Monitoring the need for suctioning takes precedence to ensure the client's airway remains patent. While monitoring pain levels, IV line patency, and dressing integrity are important aspects of care, ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning is the priority in this scenario.
5. When caring for a client with pneumonia, what intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection?
- A. Administer prescribed antibiotics on time.
- B. Encourage the client to use a tissue when coughing.
- C. Place the client in a private room.
- D. Perform hand hygiene before and after client contact.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most effective intervention to prevent the spread of infection when caring for a client with pneumonia is performing hand hygiene before and after client contact. This practice helps reduce the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, promoting infection control and maintaining a safe environment for both the client and healthcare provider.
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