Nursing Elites

1. A client who experienced a femur fracture 8 hr ago now reports sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Provide high-flow oxygen.
• B. Check the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
• C. Administer an IV vasopressor medication.
• D. Monitor the client for headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action is to provide high-flow oxygen to the client. Sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and stabilizes the client's condition. Checking for Chvostek's sign, administering IV vasopressors, or monitoring for a headache are not the immediate priorities in this critical situation.

2. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts less than 15 minutes
• D. No relief from taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Additionally, it can occur without a known cause, unlike stable angina which often has a trigger such as exertion.

3. When caring for a client with pneumonia, what intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection?

• A. Administer prescribed antibiotics on time.
• B. Encourage the client to use a tissue when coughing.
• C. Place the client in a private room.
• D. Perform hand hygiene before and after client contact.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective intervention to prevent the spread of infection when caring for a client with pneumonia is performing hand hygiene before and after client contact. This practice helps reduce the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, promoting infection control and maintaining a safe environment for both the client and healthcare provider.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased anterior-posterior (AP) chest diameter
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight gain
• D. Productive cough with yellow sputum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), clients often develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest due to hyperinflation of the lungs. This change in chest shape is a common finding in COPD. Decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings associated with COPD.

5. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

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