Nursing Elites

1. A client is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy with a chest tube drainage system in place. Which finding by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?

• A. Chest tube eyelets not visible
• B. Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
• C. Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
• D. Development of subcutaneous emphysema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The development of subcutaneous emphysema is a concerning finding that requires immediate intervention. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air leaking into the tissues, which can lead to respiratory compromise. It is important to address this issue promptly to prevent further complications. The other options are normal or expected findings in a chest tube drainage system. Chest tube eyelets not being visible may indicate dislodgement, continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates proper functioning, and the presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber demonstrates appropriate drainage and lung re-expansion.

2. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?

• A. Pain severity
• B. Wound drainage
• C. Tissue integrity
• D. Airway patency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.

3. A healthcare professional assesses a client who is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Loud wheezing
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Silent chest

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A silent chest in a client experiencing an acute asthma attack indicates severe airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure. It is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention as it signifies a lack of airflow and ventilation. Loud wheezing, increased respiratory rate, and use of accessory muscles are common signs of an asthma attack and indicate the body's attempt to compensate. However, a silent chest suggests a dangerous lack of airflow that necessitates urgent medical attention to prevent respiratory arrest.

4. During an assessment, an older adult client's son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Night sweats
• C. Confusion
• D. Narrowed pulse pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confusion is a common manifestation of pneumonia in older adults. It can result from inadequate oxygenation to the brain due to respiratory compromise. Bradycardia, night sweats, and narrowed pulse pressure are not typically specific findings associated with pneumonia and should be further assessed or monitored, but confusion is a key indicator that warrants immediate attention.

5. During an acute asthma attack in a client with asthma, what medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Oral corticosteroids
• B. Short-acting beta agonist
• C. Leukotriene receptor antagonist
• D. Long-acting beta agonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Short-acting beta agonists, like albuterol, are the first-line medications as they rapidly relax bronchial muscles, providing immediate relief. Oral corticosteroids are used as adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation over time, while leukotriene receptor antagonists and long-acting beta agonists are not appropriate for immediate relief during an acute attack.

Similar Questions