ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
- B. Difficulty swallowing
- C. Heart rate of 122/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.
2. During an assessment, an older adult client's son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Night sweats
- C. Confusion
- D. Narrowed pulse pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Confusion is a common manifestation of pneumonia in older adults. It can result from inadequate oxygenation to the brain due to respiratory compromise. Bradycardia, night sweats, and narrowed pulse pressure are not typically specific findings associated with pneumonia and should be further assessed or monitored, but confusion is a key indicator that warrants immediate attention.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who had a myocardial infarction. Upon auscultating heart sounds, the provider hears the following sound. What action by the provider is most appropriate?
- A. Assess the client's lung sounds.
- B. Call the Rapid Response Team.
- C. Have the client sit upright.
- D. Listen to the client's lung sounds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The sound described is an S3 heart sound, which can indicate heart failure. The next appropriate action for the provider is to listen to the client's lung sounds. Lung sounds can provide additional information about the client's condition, especially when abnormal heart sounds are present. Calling the Rapid Response Team is not warranted based solely on the heart sound assessment. Having the client sit upright is not directly related to addressing the abnormal heart sound.
4. A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction (MI). What is the priority assessment for this client?
- A. Monitoring urine output
- B. Checking blood glucose levels
- C. Assessing for chest pain
- D. Monitoring electrolyte levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing for chest pain is crucial in post-MI clients as it can indicate complications such as reinfarction or ischemia.
5. A client who experienced a femur fracture 8 hr ago now reports sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Provide high-flow oxygen.
- B. Check the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
- C. Administer an IV vasopressor medication.
- D. Monitor the client for headache.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the priority action is to provide high-flow oxygen to the client. Sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and stabilizes the client's condition. Checking for Chvostek's sign, administering IV vasopressors, or monitoring for a headache are not the immediate priorities in this critical situation.
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