Nursing Elites

1. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Difficulty swallowing
• C. Heart rate of 122/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.

2. A healthcare provider collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the healthcare provider include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. I ensured the client did not use bronchodilator medication within the specified timeframe.
• B. The client is prepared to undergo the examination in radiology.
• C. Physical therapy has approved the client for treadmill exercise.
• D. I instructed the client not to smoke for the required duration before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For accurate pulmonary function tests (PFTs), it is essential to communicate that the client did not use bronchodilators within the specified timeframe, did not smoke for the required duration before the test, and can comply with different breathing maneuvers. The use of a treadmill is not part of the PFT procedure and is unrelated to the testing process. Therefore, communicating about the client's ability to run on a treadmill is not relevant to the pulmonary function tests being conducted by the respiratory therapist.

3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client following a thoracentesis. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following manifestations as a complication and contact the provider immediately?

• A. Serosanguineous drainage from the puncture site
• B. Discomfort at the puncture site
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Decreased temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a thoracentesis, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to monitor for potential complications. Increased heart rate can indicate hypovolemia or other serious issues, such as bleeding or pneumothorax, and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Serosanguineous drainage from the puncture site is a common expected finding post-procedure. Discomfort at the puncture site is also common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Decreased temperature is not typically associated with complications following a thoracentesis. Therefore, the correct answer is increased heart rate as it signifies a potential serious complication that needs prompt medical evaluation.

4. During an assessment, a client with a long history of smoking and suspected laryngeal cancer will most likely report which early manifestation?

• A. Dysphagia
• B. Hoarseness
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with laryngeal cancer, hoarseness is often one of the earliest manifestations due to vocal cord involvement. The irritation and inflammation caused by the tumor affect the vocal cords, leading to changes in voice quality. Dysphagia (choice A) typically occurs later as the tumor grows and interferes with swallowing. Dyspnea (choice C) and weight loss (choice D) may occur as the cancer progresses, but hoarseness is usually among the first signs to manifest in laryngeal cancer.

5. A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is a natural process of life.

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