Nursing Elites

1. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Difficulty swallowing
• C. Heart rate of 122/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.

2. During an asthma attack, a healthcare provider is assessing a client for hypoxemia. Which of the following manifestations should the provider expect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dysphagia
• C. Agitation
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an asthma attack, hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain, causing symptoms like restlessness, confusion, and agitation. These manifestations result from the body's response to low oxygen levels, aiming to increase oxygenation. Nausea, dysphagia, and hypotension are not typical manifestations of hypoxemia during an asthma attack.

3. When reviewing the provider's orders, a nurse recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications in a client experiencing an exacerbation of asthma?

• A. Propranolol
• B. Theophylline
• C. Montelukast
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Propranolol. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can potentially exacerbate asthma symptoms due to its mechanism of action. It can cause bronchoconstriction, which is harmful for a client experiencing an asthma exacerbation. Theophylline, Montelukast, and Prednisone are commonly used in the treatment of asthma exacerbations and would not typically require clarification in this context.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat 3 balanced meals each day.
• B. Limit fluid intake with meals.
• C. Reduce sodium intake.
• D. Take a bronchodilator 1 hour before eating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, limiting fluid intake with meals can help reduce the risk of bloating and feeling too full, which can make breathing more difficult due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. It is important to encourage a balanced diet with appropriate fluid intake between meals to maintain hydration and proper nutrition. Options A, C, and D are not specifically related to dietary recommendations for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

5. A client has a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor?

• A. Confusion
• B. Weakness
• C. Increased intracranial pressure
• D. Increased urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, weakness is a common manifestation due to the immune system attacking the communication between nerves and muscles. Monitoring for weakness is crucial to assess the disease progression and determine the effectiveness of treatment. Confusion is not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Increased intracranial pressure and increased urinary output are not directly associated with this condition.

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