Nursing Elites

1. A client is planning to perform nasotracheal suction for a client who has COPD and an artificial airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Perform suctioning for up to four passes.
• B. Apply suction to the catheter when advancing it into the trachea.
• C. Preoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen for up to 3 min.
• D. Limit each suction pass to 25 seconds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

2. While dining at a restaurant, a person begins to choke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the person to call 911.
• B. Ask the person if he/she can speak.
• C. Use the jaw-thrust maneuver.
• D. Perform abdominal thrusts.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When encountering a choking individual, the nurse should first assess the person's ability to speak. If the person can speak, it indicates that their airway is partially obstructed, allowing some air to pass. In this case, encouraging the person to continue coughing and monitoring them closely may be appropriate. If the person cannot speak, it may suggest a complete airway obstruction and immediate intervention is required. Instructing the person to call 911 (Choice A) may be necessary if the situation worsens. Using the jaw-thrust maneuver (Choice C) is not appropriate for a choking victim. Performing abdominal thrusts (Choice D) is typically recommended for conscious choking victims, not chest compressions.

3. During an assessment, an older adult client's son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Night sweats
• C. Confusion
• D. Narrowed pulse pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confusion is a common manifestation of pneumonia in older adults. It can result from inadequate oxygenation to the brain due to respiratory compromise. Bradycardia, night sweats, and narrowed pulse pressure are not typically specific findings associated with pneumonia and should be further assessed or monitored, but confusion is a key indicator that warrants immediate attention.

4. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

5. A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is a natural process of life.

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