ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. Weight gain, dry mouth, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer bisacodyl suppository to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Don sterile gloves
- B. Lubricate index finger
- C. Use a rectal applicator for insertion
- D. Position client supine with knees bent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action when administering a bisacodyl suppository is to lubricate the index finger for easier insertion. Using a rectal applicator for insertion is not recommended for bisacodyl suppositories. Positioning the client supine with knees bent is not necessary for the administration of a bisacodyl suppository. While wearing gloves is important for infection control, sterile gloves are not required for this procedure.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent complications?
- A. Administer the medication by IV bolus over 2 minutes
- B. Infuse the medication slowly using an IV pump
- C. Add the medication to an IV solution of D5W
- D. Dilute the medication in 5 mL of sterile water
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to prevent complications when administering potassium chloride IV is to infuse the medication slowly using an IV pump. Rapid administration of potassium chloride can lead to complications such as hyperkalemia and cardiac arrest. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not promote the safe administration of potassium chloride. Administering the medication by IV bolus over 2 minutes is too rapid and can cause adverse effects. Adding the medication to an IV solution of D5W or diluting it in sterile water may not control the rate of administration, increasing the risk of complications.
4. A healthcare provider has just administered a wrong medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the provider take next?
- A. No action is needed
- B. Report error to the provider
- C. Complete an institutional incident report
- D. Inform the client that the wrong medication was given
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario where a wrong medication has been administered, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to report the error to the provider. This action is essential to ensure that the provider is informed promptly, corrective measures are taken, and the client's well-being is safeguarded. Choice A is incorrect as taking no action could lead to serious consequences and compromise patient safety. Choice C, while important, should come after reporting the error to the provider. Choice D is not the immediate priority as the provider should first focus on addressing the error internally.
5. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following findings would indicate an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect associated with spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice C) are not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypernatremia (choice D) is also an unlikely finding with spironolactone.
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