ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. Weight gain, dry mouth, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
2. A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?
- A. Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck
- B. This medication can cause insomnia
- C. Decrease your fluid intake while taking this medication
- D. This medication can cause urinary frequency
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as restlessness or facial spasms, which are serious and require immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Insomnia is not a common side effect of metoclopramide. Increasing fluid intake is usually recommended to prevent dehydration caused by potential side effects like diarrhea. Urinary frequency is not a typical side effect associated with metoclopramide.
3. A client receiving epoetin alfa therapy for anemia is being monitored for therapeutic effects. Which of the following laboratory values indicates the medication is effective?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Hematocrit
- C. Platelet count
- D. Red blood cell count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematocrit. An increase in hematocrit levels indicates the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia. Hematocrit reflects the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, so an increase in hematocrit signifies an improvement in the patient's red blood cell count and oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because white blood cell count, platelet count, and red blood cell count do not directly reflect the therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa in treating anemia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for the treatment of anemia. Which of the following instructions should be included in client teaching about this medication?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach to maximize absorption
- B. Notify your provider if your stool becomes dark green
- C. Decrease dietary fiber intake while taking this medication
- D. Take prescribed antacids at the same time as this medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should instruct clients to take iron on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals to maximize absorption. This enhances the medication's effectiveness. Option B is incorrect because dark green stool is a common side effect of iron supplements and does not necessarily indicate a problem. Option C is incorrect as dietary fiber intake does not need to be decreased while taking iron supplements. Option D is incorrect because antacids can interfere with the absorption of iron and should not be taken at the same time.
5. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication regimen. Which of the following medications places the client at increased risk for digoxin toxicity?
- A. Calcium channel blockers
- B. Potassium-sparing diuretics
- C. Beta blockers
- D. Loop diuretics
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Loop diuretics. Loop diuretics can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, and hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium channel blockers, potassium-sparing diuretics, and beta blockers do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.
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