Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes has a new prescription for 14 units of regular insulin and 28 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at breakfast daily. What is the total number of units of insulin that should be prepared in the insulin syringe?

• A. 42 units
• B. 14 units
• C. 28 units
• D. 32 units

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total number of units of insulin, you need to add the 14 units of regular insulin to the 28 units of NPH insulin, which equals 42 units. Therefore, the nurse should prepare 42 units of insulin in the syringe for the client.

2. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Azotemia
• C. Falls
• D. Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.

3. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Administer the injection in your thigh.
• B. Do not expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection.
• C. Massage the injection site after administration.
• D. Alternate the injection site between the arms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) is not to expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection. This ensures the full dose is delivered without affecting the medication's efficacy. Expelling the air bubble may lead to a loss of medication, resulting in suboptimal treatment. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to follow this instruction to receive the intended therapeutic effect of enoxaparin.

4. A male infant born at 30-weeks gestation at an outlying hospital is being prepared for transport to a Level IV neonatal facility. His respirations are 90/min, and his heart rate is 150 beats per minute. Which drug is the transport team most likely to administer to this infant?

• A. Ampicillin (Omnipen) 25 mg/kg slow IV push.
• B. Gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) 2.5 mg/kg IV.
• C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 20 micrograms/kg IV.
• D. Beractant (Survanta) 100 mg/kg per endotracheal tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant is a preterm neonate with respiratory distress and is being transported to a Level IV neonatal facility. The drug most likely to be administered by the transport team is Beractant (Survanta) via endotracheal tube. Beractant is a surfactant used to treat respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants by improving lung compliance and reducing the need for mechanical ventilation.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to receive epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory result should the nurse review before administering the medication?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Creatinine clearance
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the hemoglobin level before administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) to assess its effectiveness in stimulating red blood cell production. Hemoglobin level is a crucial indicator to monitor in clients with chronic renal failure receiving this medication. Choice A (Blood urea nitrogen) and Choice B (Creatinine clearance) are commonly monitored in renal failure but are not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Choice D (Serum potassium) is important to monitor due to potential imbalances in renal failure, but it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

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