Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client in labor who is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse notes early decelerations in electronic fetal monitoring, it indicates head compression, which is generally considered benign and not associated with fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, or post maturity. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are a normal response to fetal head compression during labor.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid vitamin K-rich foods.
• B. I will avoid using aspirin while on this medication.
• C. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• D. I will increase my intake of leafy greens.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Warfarin's effectiveness is reduced by high intake of vitamin K-rich foods, so increasing their intake would contradict the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding vitamin K-rich foods helps maintain the medication's effectiveness, avoiding aspirin reduces the risk of bleeding, and monitoring blood pressure is essential for overall health monitoring.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Heart rate of 82/min
• C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
• D. Oxygen saturation 95%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. White blood cell count 8,000/mm3
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, a side effect of methotrexate, and should be reported. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate potential complications related to methotrexate therapy.

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