Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

2. Which organ has the greatest effect on fluid output?

• A. Kidneys
• B. Lungs
• C. Skin
• D. Intestines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the kidneys. The kidneys are primarily responsible for regulating fluid balance by filtering blood and adjusting the volume and concentration of urine. The lungs primarily regulate gas exchange, not fluid balance. The skin plays a role in temperature regulation and protection but is not the primary organ for fluid output. The intestines are mainly involved in the absorption of nutrients and water, rather than fluid output.

3. While assessing a clients peripheral IV site, the nurse observes a streak of red along the vein path and palpates a 4-cm venous cord. How should the nurse document this finding?

• A. Grade 3 phlebitis at IV site
• B. infection at IV site
• C. Thrombosed area at IV site
• D. infiltration at IV site

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is having a subclavian central venous catheter inserted. The client begins to report chest pain and difficulty breathing. After administering oxygen, which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet
• B. Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion.
• C. . Place a sterile dressing over the IV site
• D. Re-position the client into the Trendelenburg position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

5. After teaching a client to increase dietary potassium intake, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary meal selection indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?

• A. Toasted English muffin with butter and blueberry jam, and tea with sugar
• B. Two scrambled eggs, a slice of white toast, and a half cup of strawberries
• C. Sausage, one slice of whole wheat toast, half cup of raisins, and a glass of milk
• D. Bowl of oatmeal with brown sugar, a half cup of sliced peaches, and coffee

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer as it includes foods high in potassium, such as raisins, whole wheat toast, and milk. Potassium is essential for various bodily functions, including maintaining proper heart and muscle function. Choices A, B, and D do not contain significant sources of potassium. Choice A consists mainly of carbohydrates and sugar, choice B focuses on protein and carbohydrates, and choice D provides carbohydrates and some fruit but lacks high-potassium options like in choice C.

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