a nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia
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ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation

1. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

2. Place a washcloth between the skin and tourniquet

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

3. A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level quickly to prevent life-threatening complications like arrhythmias. The correct answer is to prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push. This combination helps shift potassium from the extracellular to the intracellular space, reducing serum potassium levels rapidly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) by mouth may take several hours to work, making it a less effective immediate intervention. Providing a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet is important for long-term management but is not the most urgent action in this situation. While hemodialysis is a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia, it is not the first-line intervention for acute management of high potassium levels with cardiovascular manifestations.

4. You are the nurse caring for a 77-year-old male patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle accident. You and your colleague note that the patients labs indicate minimally elevated serum creatinine levels, which your colleague dismisses. What can this increase in creatinine indicate in older adults?

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

5. A patient is taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to control her hypertension. Her serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. For this patient, the nurse's priority would be to assess her:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with a serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L due to spironolactone use, the nurse's priority is to assess the Electrocardiogram (ECG) results. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation, which can be detected on an ECG. While changes in neuromuscular function, bowel sounds, and respiratory rate can occur with hyperkalemia, the most critical assessment related to the patient's condition would be monitoring the ECG for signs of cardiac complications.

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