you are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end stage liver disease what principle should guide your asses
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fluid and Electrolytes

1. You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patient's skin turgor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inelastic skin is a normal change of aging. However, this does not mean that skin turgor cannot be assessed in older patients. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration is not common among healthy older adults. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration leads to inelastic skin, not sponginess. Choice D is incorrect as skin turgor assessment can be done in patients of any age, including those over 70.

2. What electrolyte value should be monitored when a patient is receiving a loop diuretic?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is receiving a loop diuretic like furosemide (Lasix), potassium levels should be monitored closely. Loop diuretics act on the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and water, leading to potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Calcium levels (Choice A), phosphorus levels (Choice B), and magnesium levels (Choice D) are not typically affected directly by loop diuretics and do not require routine monitoring in this context.

3. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

4. You are caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pancreatitis. The patient was admitted from a homeless shelter and is a vague historian. The patient appears malnourished and on day 3 of the patients admission total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has been started. Why would you know to start the infusion of TPN slowly?

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

5. The community health nurse is performing a home visit to an 84-year-old woman recovering from hip surgery. The nurse notes that the woman seems uncharacteristically confused and has dry mucous membranes. When asked about her fluid intake, the patient states, I stop drinking water early in the day because it is just too difficult to get up during the night to go to the bathroom. What would be the nurses best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

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