Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis and is at risk for an acid-base imbalance. For which manifestation of this acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess?

• A. Agitation
• B. Kussmaul respirations
• C. Seizures
• D. Positive Chvosteks sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

2. You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When you review your patients most recent laboratory reports, you note that the patients magnesium levels are high. You should prioritize assessment for which of the followin

• A. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Cool, clammy skin
• D. Acute flank pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

3. An increase in capillary blood pressure would tend to:

• A. increase interstitial fluid volume.
• B. increase plasma volume.
• C. decrease interstitial fluid volume.
• D. increase plasma volume and decrease interstitial fluid volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in capillary blood pressure leads to a higher force pushing fluid out of the capillaries into the interstitial space, thereby increasing interstitial fluid volume. Choice B is incorrect because capillary blood pressure affects the movement of fluid into the interstitial space, not into the plasma. Choice C is incorrect as an increase in capillary blood pressure would not decrease interstitial fluid volume. Choice D is incorrect as it combines contradictory effects when capillary blood pressure increases.

4. A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed a central vascular access device. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching?

• A. You will need to wear a sling on your arm while the device is in place
• B. There is no risk of infection because sterile technique will be used during insertion.
• C. . Ask all providers to vigorously clean the connections prior to accessing the device.
• D. You will not be able to take a bath with this vascular access device.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

5. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

• A. The man urinated prior to his arrival in the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
• B. The man has a brain injury, lacks ADH, and needs vasopressin.
• C. The man is in heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide, which results in decreased urine output.
• D. He is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

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