a nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy which of the following findings should the nurse repo
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy, chest pain is a critical finding that should be reported immediately. Chest pain can indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism, which require prompt intervention. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not typical signs of immediate concern following an arterial thrombectomy. Incisional pain is expected postoperatively and may not warrant immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is crucial for the provider to be informed about the client taking warfarin to adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical to report for surgical planning. A history of hypertension (B) is important but may not require immediate intervention for surgery. Eating a light breakfast 2 hours prior (C) is a normal preoperative instruction. Smoking history (D) is relevant for overall health assessment but is not as urgent as the use of warfarin before surgery.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 75 mm/hr indicates inflammation, which is common in rheumatoid arthritis. Elevated ESR levels are often seen in inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Options A, B, and C are within the normal range and are not typically indicative of active inflammation associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated ESR level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of vancomycin IV to a client who has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to check the client's creatinine level before administering vancomycin. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, so assessing the client's renal function before administering the medication is crucial to prevent further kidney damage. Administering the medication over 15 minutes (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as renal function assessment takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important for assessing renal function but checking creatinine level directly provides more accurate information. Assessing for allergies to antibiotics (Choice D) is also important but not as essential as checking the creatinine level due to the nephrotoxic nature of vancomycin.

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