ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Muscle spasms
- C. Cool, moist skin
- D. Incisional pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy, chest pain is a critical finding that should be reported immediately. Chest pain can indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism, which require prompt intervention. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not typical signs of immediate concern following an arterial thrombectomy. Incisional pain is expected postoperatively and may not warrant immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving gentamicin for a wound infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 25 mg/dL
- B. Serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
- C. Serum glucose 110 mg/dL
- D. White blood cell (WBC) count 5,000/mm3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated BUN level indicates possible nephrotoxicity, which is a side effect of gentamicin and should be reported. Elevated serum creatinine and WBC count are not specifically related to gentamicin therapy. Normal serum glucose levels are also within the expected range.
3. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with confusion post-surgery?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Perform a neurological assessment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with confusion post-surgery because it helps alleviate confusion caused by potential hypoxia. In a post-surgical setting, confusion can be a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the blood due to various reasons such as respiratory depression, decreased lung function, or other complications. Administering oxygen can quickly address hypoxia, improving oxygenation to the brain and reducing confusion. Repositioning the patient, administering IV fluids, or performing a neurological assessment are not the primary interventions for confusion related to hypoxia post-surgery.
4. A client is receiving continuous IV nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Keep calcium gluconate at the bedside.
- B. Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours.
- C. Limit IV exposure to light.
- D. Attach an inline filter to the IV tubing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to limit IV exposure to light. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, and exposure to light can lead to its degradation, potentially reducing its efficacy in treating severe hypertension. Keeping calcium gluconate at the bedside (Choice A) is not directly related to managing nitroprusside infusion. While monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours (Choice B) is important in managing hypertension, it is not the immediate action required to ensure medication efficacy. Attaching an inline filter to the IV tubing (Choice D) may help filter particles but does not address the critical concern of light sensitivity associated with nitroprusside administration.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Serum potassium 5.4 mEq/L
- B. Flat T waves
- C. Elevated ST segments
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Flat T waves are a characteristic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes a decrease in serum potassium levels, leading to altered cardiac conduction. Flat T waves are associated with hypokalemia-induced cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated ST segments are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Bradycardia is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia may occur due to potassium imbalances affecting the heart's electrical activity.
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