ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client with heart failure is receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure continuously
- B. Weigh the client daily
- C. Monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration
- D. Measure the client's intake and output every 2 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Measuring the client's intake and output every 2 hours is essential when caring for a client receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Milrinone is a medication that affects fluid balance, and monitoring intake and output helps assess the client's response to the medication. Continuous monitoring of blood pressure may not be necessary unless there is a specific indication. While weighing the client daily is important for overall assessment, measuring intake and output more frequently provides more real-time data for fluid balance evaluation. Monitoring the infusion site is crucial for detecting infiltration but is not directly related to managing fluid balance in this situation.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
- B. I should take this medication with food.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a headache.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands the potential side effect associated with the medication. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is typically taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because a headache is not a common reason to stop taking lisinopril.
3. What is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Provide bronchodilators
- D. Provide humidified air
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation levels and alleviates respiratory distress directly. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen supply, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Repositioning the patient, while important for airway clearance, may not address the immediate need for oxygen. Providing bronchodilators and humidified air can be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but when a patient is in respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygenation through oxygen administration takes precedence.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a nine-second duration, and the fetal heart rate is 170 to 180 beats per minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue oxytocin infusion
- B. Increase oxytocin infusion
- C. Decrease oxytocin infusion
- D. Maintain oxytocin infusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing frequent contractions with a short duration and an elevated fetal heart rate, indicating potential fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications and restore normal fetal parameters. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion could exacerbate the situation, leading to more distress for the fetus. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the current issue and could delay the improvement of fetal well-being.
5. Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?
- A. INR of 1.1
- B. PT of 12 seconds
- C. INR of 2.5
- D. Platelet count of 150,000
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
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