a nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery which of the following findings should the nurse report to the p
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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine output of 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of dehydration or kidney impairment postoperatively. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and D are within normal parameters for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not raise immediate concerns. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing is an expected finding in the early postoperative period, a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is also within normal limits.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.

3. A nurse in a mental health facility is caring for a client who is angry and throwing objects at staff members. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a situation where a client is exhibiting violent behavior like throwing objects and posing a risk to themselves and others, the immediate priority is to ensure the safety of all involved. Placing the client in seclusion is a necessary intervention to prevent harm and allow for de-escalation. Asking the client to identify the trigger or instructing them to calm down may not be effective or safe in this escalated state. Encouraging the client to attend group therapy is not suitable when they are in an agitated and aggressive state that requires immediate intervention.

4. What is the most important intervention for a patient with suspected DVT?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is crucial in the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps prevent the clot from growing larger or dislodging, potentially causing a life-threatening pulmonary embolism. While monitoring oxygen levels, applying compression stockings, and encouraging ambulation are important aspects of DVT management, administering anticoagulants is the most critical intervention to prevent further complications.

5. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bacon is high in sodium, which can elevate blood pressure levels. Clients with hypertension should avoid high-sodium foods like bacon to help manage their blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are healthier options compared to bacon and can be included in a balanced diet for someone with hypertension. Bananas are a good source of potassium, which can help in managing blood pressure. Carrots are low in sodium and high in fiber, making them a heart-healthy choice. Chicken breast is a lean protein option that is beneficial for individuals with hypertension.

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