Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?

• A. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
• B. Check the client's urinary output.
• C. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
• D. Assess the client's pain level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Proteinuria of 1+.
• B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
• D. Nonpitting ankle edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

• A. Low back pain.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Chills.
• D. Distended neck veins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low back pain. Low back pain is a common sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, indicating the destruction of red blood cells. This finding requires immediate intervention as it can lead to serious complications such as renal failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Chills (choice C) can be seen in febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. Distended neck veins (choice D) are more indicative of fluid overload rather than a hemolytic reaction.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. aPTT of 38 seconds
• B. Hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 80,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.0

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.

5. A client with a new prescription for furosemide should increase intake of which of the following?

• A. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
• D. You should avoid taking this medication with food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, which means it can lead to low potassium levels in the body. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods helps counteract this effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide should not necessarily be taken on an empty stomach, at bedtime, or specifically avoided with food.

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