ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Provide information about stress management.
- B. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
- C. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
- D. Give glucocorticoid steroids twice a day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Providing information about stress management is essential when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease because stress can trigger episodes. Stress management techniques can help the client avoid triggers and reduce the frequency of episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, helps prevent vasoconstriction and can be beneficial for clients with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease; it is more commonly used for severe allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect because glucocorticoid steroids are not typically used in the management of Raynaud's disease.
2. A nurse is performing a gastric lavage for a client who has upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instill 500 ml of solution through the NG tube
- B. Insert a large-bore NG tube
- C. Use a cold irrigation solution
- D. Instruct the client to lie on his right side
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Insert a large-bore NG tube.' When performing a gastric lavage for a client with upper gastrointestinal bleeding, a large-bore NG tube is used to effectively remove gastric contents and blood. Option A is incorrect because the amount of solution to instill depends on the specific situation and should be guided by the healthcare provider's order. Option C is incorrect because using a cold irrigation solution can lead to hypothermia and is not recommended. Option D is incorrect as there is no need to instruct the client to lie on his right side specifically for gastric lavage.
3. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating an infant with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should be the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?
- A. Nasal flaring
- B. WBC count of 11,300
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Abdominal distension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing an infant with pneumonia, the priority finding to report to the provider is nasal flaring. Nasal flaring indicates acute respiratory distress, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing respiratory distress take precedence over other symptoms or laboratory results in this situation.
4. How long can Vitamin A be stored in the liver for at least?
- A. 1 month.
- B. 6 months.
- C. 1 year.
- D. 18 months.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vitamin A can be stored in the liver to meet basic needs for at least 1 year. This storage capacity allows the body to have a reserve of Vitamin A to sustain its needs over an extended period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they underestimate the storage capacity of Vitamin A in the liver, which can last longer than these durations.
5. Which disease would require strict isolation of the patient?
- A. Mumps
- B. Chickenpox
- C. Exanthema subitum (roseola)
- D. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chickenpox. Chickenpox is highly infectious and is transmitted through direct contact, droplet spread, and contaminated objects. Due to its high communicability, strict isolation of the patient is necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Mumps is primarily transmitted through direct contact with the infected person's saliva, with peak contagiousness before the onset of swelling. Exanthema subitum (roseola) has an unknown transmission source. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) is contagious before the appearance of symptoms. Therefore, these diseases do not require the same level of strict isolation as chickenpox.
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