Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

• A. Crackles in the lung bases
• B. Blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 26/min
• D. Heart rate of 86/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Breathe rapidly through your mouth when using the incentive spirometer.
• B. Use pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea.
• C. Avoid drinking fluids during meals.
• D. Use diaphragmatic breathing during periods of dyspnea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Gastric residual of 200 mL or more
• B. pH of gastric contents is 5.0
• C. Bowel sounds are present in all quadrants
• D. Temperature 37.5°C (99.5°F)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A gastric residual of 200 mL or more indicates delayed gastric emptying, which can be a sign of potential complications such as aspiration or intolerance to the enteral feedings. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. A pH of 5.0 is normal for gastric contents, bowel sounds in all quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal motility, and a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range.

4. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours.
• B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
• C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
• D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.

5. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.

Similar Questions