a nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.

2. What is the most effective intervention for a patient experiencing acute pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering analgesics is the most effective intervention for a patient experiencing acute pain as it directly targets the pain receptors and provides relief. Repositioning the patient may help in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain. Non-pharmacological interventions can be beneficial as adjuncts to pain management but might not provide immediate relief. Administering IV fluids is not a standard intervention for acute pain unless dehydration is contributing to the pain.

3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor the IV site. Potassium can be irritating to the veins and may cause phlebitis or infiltration. Monitoring the IV site allows early detection of any potential complications. Checking urine output (Choice A) is important to assess kidney function but is not directly related to monitoring IV potassium. Blood pressure (Choice B) and respiratory rate (Choice D) are essential vital signs to monitor in general patient care but are not specific to monitoring IV potassium administration.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught self-administration of insulin by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region. This practice helps reduce the risk of lipodystrophy, a condition characterized by fatty tissue changes due to repeated insulin injections in the same spot. By rotating sites, the client ensures better insulin absorption and prevents localized skin changes. Injecting air into the vial before withdrawing insulin (Choice A) is unnecessary and not recommended. Drawing up short-acting insulin before long-acting insulin (Choice B) is not a standard practice and can lead to errors in dosing. Storing unopened insulin vials in the freezer (Choice C) is incorrect as insulin should be stored in the refrigerator, not the freezer, to maintain its effectiveness.

5. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.

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