a nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which action should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma and effectively dislodge the impacted stool. Choice B, applying lubricant and stimulating peristalsis, is incorrect as it does not directly address the evacuation of the impacted stool. Choice C, applying pressure to the abdomen, is inappropriate and may cause discomfort or harm to the client. Choice D, increasing fluid intake before the procedure, is not directly related to the immediate evacuation of the fecal impaction.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient taking digoxin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Patients taking digoxin are at risk of developing toxicity due to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious arrhythmias. Monitoring calcium levels (Choice B) is not the primary concern in patients taking digoxin. While calcium levels play a role in cardiac function, hypocalcemia is not directly associated with digoxin toxicity. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern in a patient taking digoxin. Monitoring magnesium levels (Choice D) is also essential, but hypomagnesemia is not as directly linked to digoxin toxicity as hypokalemia.

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