Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Hypertension
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Passing small clots in the urine.
• B. Continuous bladder irrigation.
• C. Red-tinged urine with numerous clots.
• D. Urine output of 50 mL/hr.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Red-tinged urine with numerous clots. This finding should be reported because it indicates excessive bleeding following a TURP procedure. Passing small clots in the urine (choice A) is expected post-TURP. Continuous bladder irrigation (choice B) is a standard procedure after TURP to prevent clot retention. Urine output of 50 mL/hr (choice D) is within the expected range postoperatively and does not indicate a complication.

3. A client in active labor requests pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer ondansetron.
• B. Place the client in a warm shower.
• C. Apply fundal pressure during contractions.
• D. Assist the client to a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During active labor, nonpharmacologic comfort measures like placing the client in a warm shower are effective for pain relief. Ondansetron (Choice A) is an antiemetic and not used for pain management during labor. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can cause harm and is not recommended due to the risk of uterine rupture. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice D) is not ideal in labor as it can decrease blood flow to the placenta and is associated with increased maternal complications.

4. When teaching a client about nutritional intake, what should be included?

• A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake.
• B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake.
• C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake.
• D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about nutritional intake, it is important to mention that carbohydrates should constitute at least 45% of their daily caloric intake for a balanced diet. This macronutrient provides energy and is essential for proper bodily functions. Choice B is incorrect because protein should typically account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is too low for the recommended carbohydrate intake, as it should be higher at 45%. Choice D is incorrect as protein intake should generally be around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.

5. How should fluid balance in a patient with heart failure be monitored?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in assessing fluid balance in patients with heart failure because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid accumulation but may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.

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