ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a toddler who has acute lymphocytic leukemia. In which of the following activities should the toddler participate?
- A. Looking at alphabet flashcards
- B. Playing with a large plastic truck
- C. Using scissors to cut out paper shapes
- D. Watching a cartoon in the dayroom
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is playing with a large plastic truck. This activity is suitable for toddlers as it promotes their development, encourages fine motor skills, and provides an opportunity for imaginative play. Looking at alphabet flashcards may be more suitable for older children who are learning letters and words. Using scissors to cut out paper shapes may pose a safety risk for a toddler, as they may not have the dexterity or understanding required for this activity. Watching a cartoon in the dayroom is a passive activity and does not actively engage the toddler in physical or cognitive development.
2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Limit fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods when taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges can help maintain adequate potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products. Choice C is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, the general instruction is not to limit fluids to prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually best taken during the day to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's Wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which condition as a result of an interaction between these substances?
- A. Tardive dyskinesia.
- B. Serotonin syndrome.
- C. Pseudoparkinsonism.
- D. Acute dystonia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome can occur due to the interaction between citalopram, an SSRI, and St. John's Wort, an herbal supplement. Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, dilated pupils, loss of muscle coordination, and sweating. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the interaction between citalopram and St. John's Wort. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of certain antipsychotic medications, and acute dystonia is a movement disorder caused by certain medications like antipsychotics.
4. What is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Provide bronchodilators
- D. Provide humidified air
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation levels and alleviates respiratory distress directly. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen supply, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Repositioning the patient, while important for airway clearance, may not address the immediate need for oxygen. Providing bronchodilators and humidified air can be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but when a patient is in respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygenation through oxygen administration takes precedence.
5. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours.
- B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
- D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.
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