ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infection. Which statement by the client indicates further teaching is required?
- A. I can visit someone with chickenpox 5 days after the sores crust.
- B. I should avoid eating foods that contain high folic acid.
- C. I can clean my cat's litter box during pregnancy.
- D. I should wash my hands with hot water for 10 seconds after gardening.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because cleaning a cat's litter box during pregnancy can increase the risk of toxoplasmosis, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Choice A is correct as the statement indicates understanding of the chickenpox transmission timeline. Choice B is also correct as high folic acid foods are beneficial during pregnancy. Choice D is correct as washing hands with hot water after gardening helps prevent infections.
2. A client has been prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client education related to this medication?
- A. This medication is prescribed for long-term therapy prophylaxis against anginal attacks
- B. Do not crush this medication
- C. Take the medication in the evening after dinner
- D. Do not take an additional tablet if you experience chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because isosorbide mononitrate is used for long-term prophylaxis against anginal attacks. Choice B is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate should not be crushed. Choice C does not specify a particular time for medication administration. Choice D is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate is not meant to be taken as needed for chest pain; it is part of a long-term therapy plan.
3. For minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS), prednisone is effective when what occurs?
- A. Appetite increases and blood pressure is normal
- B. Urinary tract infection is gone and edema subsides
- C. Generalized edema subsides and blood pressure is normal
- D. Diuresis occurs as urinary protein excretion diminishes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The effectiveness of prednisone in treating MCNS is indicated by diuresis and a decrease in urinary protein excretion. Subsidence of generalized edema is also a positive sign, but the key indicator is the reduction in proteinuria, which is achieved through diuresis.
4. The health care provider orders a liver and spleen scan for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash. Which action should the nurse take before this procedure?
- A. Check for any iodine allergy.
- B. Insert a large-bore IV catheter.
- C. Administer prescribed sedatives.
- D. Assist the patient to a flat position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before a liver and spleen scan, it is essential to assist the patient to a flat position. This position helps obtain clear images of the liver and spleen. Checking for iodine allergy (Choice A) is more relevant for procedures involving contrast dye, not a liver and spleen scan. Inserting a large-bore IV catheter (Choice B) may not be necessary for this specific procedure. Administering sedatives (Choice C) is not typically required for a liver and spleen scan, as the patient needs to remain still during the procedure.
5. A nasogastric tube for suction is ordered for a neonate diagnosed with a diaphragmatic hernia. Which complication related to gastric drainage is the priority when planning care for this neonate?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Dehydration
- D. Hyperbilirubinemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Metabolic alkalosis is the priority complication to consider when a neonate with a diaphragmatic hernia is placed on gastric suction. Prolonged gastric drainage can lead to the loss of stomach acids, resulting in metabolic alkalosis, which can have serious consequences for the neonate's health.
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