Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has COPD. The nurse should expect the client's chest to be which of the following shapes?

• A. Pigeon
• B. Funnel
• C. Kyphotic
• D. Barrel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client with COPD, the nurse should expect the client's chest to be barrel-shaped. This shape is a classic characteristic of COPD due to hyperinflation of the lungs. A 'Pigeon' chest shape is associated with pectus carinatum, a deformity of the chest wall. A 'Funnel' chest shape is seen in conditions like pectus excavatum. 'Kyphotic' refers to an exaggerated outward curvature of the thoracic spine. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Barrel' as it is the expected chest shape in clients with COPD.

2. A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is experiencing muscle pain or cramping during physical activity that resolves with rest. Which of the following symptoms is typically the initial reason clients with PAD seek medical attention?

• A. Intermittent claudication
• B. Dependent rubor
• C. Rest pain
• D. Foot ulcers

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication, which manifests as muscle pain or cramping during physical activity that improves with rest, is typically the initial reason clients with PAD seek medical attention. Dependent rubor, rest pain, and foot ulcers are more advanced symptoms of PAD and are not usually the initial reasons for seeking medical care.

3. A nurse at a provider's office receives a phone call from a client who reports unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet 5 minutes ago. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Tell the client to take an aspirin.
• B. Instruct the client to call 911.
• C. Have the client take another nitroglycerin tablet in 15 minutes.
• D. Advise the client to come to the office.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client reporting unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin tablet could be indicative of a serious cardiac event. Instructing the client to call 911 is the most appropriate response because immediate medical attention is necessary for chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Telling the client to take an aspirin (Choice A) may not address the urgency of the situation, and aspirin might not be appropriate depending on the client's medical history. Having the client take another nitroglycerin tablet (Choice C) without relief could lead to overdosage. Advising the client to come to the office (Choice D) is not the best course of action when dealing with a potential cardiac emergency that requires immediate intervention.

4. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
• C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

5. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula. The nurse should explain that this method of oxygen delivery does which of the following?

• A. Delivers a specific concentration of oxygen constantly
• B. Delivers a high concentration of oxygen
• C. Delivers a low concentration of oxygen
• D. Restricts the client's ability to eat, speak, or drink

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nasal cannula is a device used for delivering supplemental oxygen to patients. It delivers a specific concentration of oxygen constantly, typically ranging from 1-6 liters per minute. This method is effective for patients who require low to moderate levels of oxygen. Choices B and C are incorrect because a nasal cannula does not deliver a high concentration of oxygen and is not considered a low concentration delivery method. Choice D is incorrect because a nasal cannula does not restrict the client's ability to eat, speak, or drink; it allows them to perform these activities while receiving oxygen therapy.

Similar Questions