Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who came to be tested for tuberculosis (TB) after a close family member tested positive. The nurse should know that which of the following is a diagnostic tool used to screen for TB?

• A. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB)
• B. Mantoux skin test
• C. BCG vaccine
• D. Chest X-ray

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is a diagnostic tool used to screen for tuberculosis (TB). It involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin under the top layer of the skin on the forearm and then checking for a reaction within 48-72 hours. This test helps identify individuals who have been exposed to the TB bacteria. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) is used to confirm TB diagnosis in individuals suspected of having active TB. The BCG vaccine is used to prevent severe forms of tuberculosis in high-risk individuals but is not a diagnostic tool. While a chest X-ray can show signs of active TB disease, it is not a primary diagnostic tool for screening purposes.

2. A client with angina pectoris is being taught about starting therapy with nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication

• A. after each meal and at bedtime.
• B. every 15 minutes during an acute attack.
• C. at the first indication of chest pain.
• D. with 8 oz of water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets are used to relieve chest pain associated with angina. The client should take the medication at the first indication of chest pain to help dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should not be scheduled after each meal or at bedtime. Choice B is incorrect as taking the medication every 15 minutes during an acute attack is excessive and not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to take nitroglycerin with water, the timing of water intake is not as critical as taking the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

3. During a home visit, a nurse sees a client with COPD receiving oxygen at 2 L/min through a nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. What is the priority nursing action at this time?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow to 3 L/min.
• B. Evaluate the client's respiratory status.
• C. Call emergency services for the client.
• D. Instruct the client to cough and clear secretions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action in this situation is to evaluate the client's respiratory status. When a client with COPD on oxygen therapy experiences difficulty breathing, the nurse should first assess the client's respiratory status to determine the severity of the situation. Increasing the oxygen flow without proper assessment can be harmful if not clinically indicated. While calling emergency services may eventually be necessary, it should not be the immediate action without assessing the client first. Instructing the client to cough and clear secretions is not appropriate as the nurse needs to evaluate the respiratory status before proceeding with interventions.

4. When caring for a client with COPD, which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake to less than 2 L/day.
• B. Encourage the client to use the upper chest for respiration.
• C. Have the client use the early-morning hours for exercise and activity.
• D. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing. This technique helps improve breathing efficiency by keeping the airways open during exhalation and reducing air trapping. Restricting fluid intake to less than 2 L/day is not appropriate for a client with COPD, as they need adequate hydration. Using the upper chest for respiration is incorrect as it promotes shallow breathing, which is not ideal for COPD patients. While exercise is beneficial, early-morning hours may not be the best time for clients with COPD due to increased respiratory distress in the morning.

5. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
• C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

Similar Questions