a nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who came to be tested for tuberculosis tb after a close family member tested positive the nurse should know
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Nursing Specialty

1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who came to be tested for tuberculosis (TB) after a close family member tested positive. The nurse should know that which of the following is a diagnostic tool used to screen for TB?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is a diagnostic tool used to screen for tuberculosis (TB). It involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin under the top layer of the skin on the forearm and then checking for a reaction within 48-72 hours. This test helps identify individuals who have been exposed to the TB bacteria. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) is used to confirm TB diagnosis in individuals suspected of having active TB. The BCG vaccine is used to prevent severe forms of tuberculosis in high-risk individuals but is not a diagnostic tool. While a chest X-ray can show signs of active TB disease, it is not a primary diagnostic tool for screening purposes.

2. In preparation for the discharge of a client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD), the nurse should include which of the following instructions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Resting with the legs above heart level is important for clients with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) to promote better circulation and reduce leg pain. Applying a heating pad on a low setting can actually worsen symptoms by causing burns or increasing blood flow to the area, which is not recommended for PAD. While keeping the environment warm is generally beneficial, it is not a specific instruction for managing PAD. Antiembolic stockings are typically used for preventing blood clots in hospitalized patients and may not be directly related to managing PAD at home.

3. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD expresses difficulty in bringing up bronchial secretions. Which action should the nurse take to help the client with tenacious bronchial secretions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to drink eight glasses of water daily is the most appropriate action to help with tenacious bronchial secretions in COPD. Increased fluid intake can help in thinning the mucus, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear secretions. This addresses the client's difficulty in bringing up bronchial secretions. Maintaining a semi-Fowler's position can aid in breathing but does not directly address the issue of clearing secretions. Administering oxygen may be necessary for COPD, but it does not specifically target the tenacious secretions. Selecting a low-salt diet can be helpful in managing COPD in general, but it does not directly address the client's current concern of clearing bronchial secretions.

5. A nurse at a provider's office receives a phone call from a client who reports unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet 5 minutes ago. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client reporting unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin tablet could be indicative of a serious cardiac event. Instructing the client to call 911 is the most appropriate response because immediate medical attention is necessary for chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Telling the client to take an aspirin (Choice A) may not address the urgency of the situation, and aspirin might not be appropriate depending on the client's medical history. Having the client take another nitroglycerin tablet (Choice C) without relief could lead to overdosage. Advising the client to come to the office (Choice D) is not the best course of action when dealing with a potential cardiac emergency that requires immediate intervention.

Similar Questions

A client is telling the nurse in the clinic that he gets a headache after taking sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for his angina pain. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?
A client who is HIV-positive, has pneumonia and is not responding to antibiotic therapy may have active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) due to exposure history and symptoms of night sweats and hemoptysis. Which test is the most reliable to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB?
A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is experiencing muscle pain or cramping during physical activity that resolves with rest. Which of the following symptoms is typically the initial reason clients with PAD seek medical attention?
When caring for a client with COPD, which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?
During a home visit, a nurse sees a client with COPD receiving oxygen at 2 L/min through a nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. What is the priority nursing action at this time?

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