Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who came to be tested for tuberculosis (TB) after a close family member tested positive. The nurse should know that which of the following is a diagnostic tool used to screen for TB?

• A. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB)
• B. Mantoux skin test
• C. BCG vaccine
• D. Chest X-ray

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is a diagnostic tool used to screen for tuberculosis (TB). It involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin under the top layer of the skin on the forearm and then checking for a reaction within 48-72 hours. This test helps identify individuals who have been exposed to the TB bacteria. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) is used to confirm TB diagnosis in individuals suspected of having active TB. The BCG vaccine is used to prevent severe forms of tuberculosis in high-risk individuals but is not a diagnostic tool. While a chest X-ray can show signs of active TB disease, it is not a primary diagnostic tool for screening purposes.

2. A client is telling the nurse in the clinic that he gets a headache after taking sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for his angina pain. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce the nitroglycerin dose
• B. Ask the provider to prescribe a strong analgesic
• C. Lie down in a cool environment and rest
• D. Ask the provider to prescribe a different medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to lie down in a cool environment and rest after taking sublingual nitroglycerin for angina pain. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects, and resting in a cool environment can help alleviate the headache. Reducing the nitroglycerin dose is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider as it may compromise the effectiveness of the medication in managing angina. Asking for a strong analgesic is not appropriate since the headache is likely related to the nitroglycerin and not a separate issue requiring a pain reliever. Requesting a different medication should also involve consulting the healthcare provider to ensure an appropriate alternative is prescribed for angina management.

3. A client prescribed home oxygen therapy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will be able to tell the amount of oxygen being delivered by looking at the flowmeter.
• B. I should contact my doctor if I notice a decrease in my ability to concentrate.
• C. I will ensure that visitors smoke outside.
• D. I should see a frosty buildup on the tank when I refill my portable oxygen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The client's statement indicates a need for further teaching because the flowmeter indicates the flow rate of oxygen, not the total amount of oxygen being delivered. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate understanding of safety measures and indications for seeking medical attention in relation to home oxygen therapy, making them appropriate statements.

4. A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is experiencing muscle pain or cramping during physical activity that resolves with rest. Which of the following symptoms is typically the initial reason clients with PAD seek medical attention?

• A. Intermittent claudication
• B. Dependent rubor
• C. Rest pain
• D. Foot ulcers

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication, which manifests as muscle pain or cramping during physical activity that improves with rest, is typically the initial reason clients with PAD seek medical attention. Dependent rubor, rest pain, and foot ulcers are more advanced symptoms of PAD and are not usually the initial reasons for seeking medical care.

5. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
• C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

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