Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who came to be tested for tuberculosis (TB) after a close family member tested positive. The nurse should know that which of the following is a diagnostic tool used to screen for TB?

• A. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB)
• B. Mantoux skin test
• C. BCG vaccine
• D. Chest X-ray

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is a diagnostic tool used to screen for tuberculosis (TB). It involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin under the top layer of the skin on the forearm and then checking for a reaction within 48-72 hours. This test helps identify individuals who have been exposed to the TB bacteria. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) is used to confirm TB diagnosis in individuals suspected of having active TB. The BCG vaccine is used to prevent severe forms of tuberculosis in high-risk individuals but is not a diagnostic tool. While a chest X-ray can show signs of active TB disease, it is not a primary diagnostic tool for screening purposes.

2. A client with angina pectoris is being taught about starting therapy with nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication

• A. after each meal and at bedtime.
• B. every 15 minutes during an acute attack.
• C. at the first indication of chest pain.
• D. with 8 oz of water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets are used to relieve chest pain associated with angina. The client should take the medication at the first indication of chest pain to help dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should not be scheduled after each meal or at bedtime. Choice B is incorrect as taking the medication every 15 minutes during an acute attack is excessive and not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to take nitroglycerin with water, the timing of water intake is not as critical as taking the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

3. A client comes to the emergency department reporting chest pain that is sharp, knife-like, and localized to an area he points to with one finger. The nurse should document this chest pain as which of the following?

• A. Angina pectoris
• B. Cardiogenic pain
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Pleuritic pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pleuritic pain.' Pleuritic pain is characterized by sharp, knife-like pain that worsens with deep breathing or coughing and is localized to a specific area. This type of pain is often associated with inflammation of the pleura. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Angina pectoris is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Cardiogenic pain refers to pain originating from the heart itself. Myocardial infarction is the medical term for a heart attack.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client is on airborne precautions and is being treated with multidrug therapy. A chest x-ray is scheduled for the client. Which of the following is not a precaution the nurse should take to safely transport the client to x-ray?

• A. Ask the x-ray technician to come to the client's room to perform a portable x-ray.
• B. Have the client wear a mask.
• C. Notify the x-ray department that the client is on airborne precautions.
• D. Wear a filtration mask and gloves for protection against the client's microorganisms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the x-ray technician to come to the client's room to perform a portable x-ray. This option minimizes the risk of exposing other individuals to the client's infectious microorganisms during transport. Having the client wear a mask (Choice B) and notifying the x-ray department about airborne precautions (Choice C) are crucial precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Additionally, wearing a filtration mask and gloves (Choice D) is essential for the nurse's protection when in direct contact with the client, but it is not directly related to transporting the client to the x-ray department.

5. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
• C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

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