Nursing Elites

1. During a home visit, a nurse sees a client with COPD receiving oxygen at 2 L/min through a nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. What is the priority nursing action at this time?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow to 3 L/min.
• B. Evaluate the client's respiratory status.
• C. Call emergency services for the client.
• D. Instruct the client to cough and clear secretions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action in this situation is to evaluate the client's respiratory status. When a client with COPD on oxygen therapy experiences difficulty breathing, the nurse should first assess the client's respiratory status to determine the severity of the situation. Increasing the oxygen flow without proper assessment can be harmful if not clinically indicated. While calling emergency services may eventually be necessary, it should not be the immediate action without assessing the client first. Instructing the client to cough and clear secretions is not appropriate as the nurse needs to evaluate the respiratory status before proceeding with interventions.

2. In preparation for the discharge of a client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD), the nurse should include which of the following instructions?

• A. Apply a heating pad on a low setting to help relieve leg pain.
• B. Adjust the thermostat so that the environment is warm.
• C. Wear antiembolic stockings during the day.
• D. Rest with the legs above heart level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Resting with the legs above heart level is important for clients with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) to promote better circulation and reduce leg pain. Applying a heating pad on a low setting can actually worsen symptoms by causing burns or increasing blood flow to the area, which is not recommended for PAD. While keeping the environment warm is generally beneficial, it is not a specific instruction for managing PAD. Antiembolic stockings are typically used for preventing blood clots in hospitalized patients and may not be directly related to managing PAD at home.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has COPD. The nurse should expect the client's chest to be which of the following shapes?

• A. Pigeon
• B. Funnel
• C. Kyphotic
• D. Barrel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client with COPD, the nurse should expect the client's chest to be barrel-shaped. This shape is a classic characteristic of COPD due to hyperinflation of the lungs. A 'Pigeon' chest shape is associated with pectus carinatum, a deformity of the chest wall. A 'Funnel' chest shape is seen in conditions like pectus excavatum. 'Kyphotic' refers to an exaggerated outward curvature of the thoracic spine. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Barrel' as it is the expected chest shape in clients with COPD.

4. A nurse in a community health center is assessing the results of the purified protein derivative (PPD) testing she performed to screen for tuberculosis (TB). She interprets which of the following results as positive for a 6-year-old client with no risk factors for TB?

• A. 4-mm erythema
• B. 5-mm induration
• C. 10-mm wheal
• D. 15-mm induration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 15-mm induration. In PPD testing, an induration (hardened raised area) of 15 mm or more is considered positive for TB in individuals with no risk factors. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because an erythema of 4 mm, induration of 5 mm, or wheal of 10 mm are not indicative of a positive TB test result in a low-risk individual. Therefore, the interpretation of a 15-mm induration would lead the nurse to consider the test positive for TB in this case.

5. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
• C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

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